Nursing Elites

1. An older adult client with eye dryness reports itching and excessive tearing. Which medication group is most likely to have produced this client's symptoms?

• A. Antiinfectives and antidepressants.
• B. Anticoagulants and antihistamines.
• C. Antiretrovirals and antivirals.
• D. Antihypertensives and anticholinergics.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Antihypertensives and anticholinergics. Anticholinergics are known to cause dryness of secretions, including dry eyes, which can lead to symptoms of eye dryness, itching, and excessive tearing as reported by the client. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not typically cause the symptoms described by the client. Antiinfectives, antidepressants, anticoagulants, antihistamines, antiretrovirals, and antivirals do not commonly lead to dry eyes, itching, and excessive tearing.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with newly diagnosed hypertension. Which lifestyle modification should the nurse emphasize to the client?

• A. Increase sodium intake to improve fluid balance
• B. Engage in regular physical activity
• C. Increase caffeine intake to improve energy
• D. Reduce potassium intake to lower blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in regular physical activity is a crucial lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. Regular exercise helps improve cardiovascular health, lower blood pressure, and contribute to overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension as it can worsen fluid retention and elevate blood pressure. Increasing caffeine intake is also not advised as it may lead to increased heart rate and blood pressure. Reducing potassium intake is not beneficial as potassium is essential for maintaining healthy blood pressure levels.

3. A client with a 42-week gestation refuses induction. What is the most important action the nurse should take?

• A. Discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan.
• B. Explain the risks of induction after 42 weeks.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client.
• D. Discuss the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan. By doing so, the nurse can ensure that the client feels heard, respected, and supported in their decision-making process. While explaining the risks of induction after 42 weeks (Choice B) may be important, it is secondary to supporting the client's autonomy and preferences. Asking the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client (Choice C) may delay crucial communication and support that the nurse can provide. Discussing the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor (Choice D) is not the priority when the client has refused induction, as the focus should be on respecting their decision and exploring other options for support.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

5. A client with heart failure reports nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. Administer antiemetics to reduce nausea.
• B. Obtain a list of the client's cardiac medications.
• C. Perform an ECG to evaluate heart function.
• D. Review the client's dietary intake for possible causes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations in a heart failure patient is indicative of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should first obtain a list of the client's medications to verify if they are taking digoxin.

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