Nursing Elites

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing chronic pain in both hands and wrists. Which information about the client is most important for the nurse to obtain when planning care?

• A. Amount of support provided by family members
• B. Measurement of pain using a scale of 0 to 10
• C. The ability to perform ADLs
• D. Nonverbal behaviors exhibited when pain occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) is crucial in planning care for someone with chronic pain. Understanding the client's functional status helps the nurse tailor interventions to promote independence and enhance quality of life. It provides valuable insight into the impact of pain on daily activities and guides the development of a comprehensive care plan to address the client's specific needs. While family support, pain measurement, and nonverbal behaviors are important aspects to consider in caring for a client with chronic pain, the ability to perform ADLs directly reflects the client's independence and quality of life, making it the most crucial information to obtain.

2. A client with a diagnosis of hyperkalemia is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum sodium level.
• B. Serum potassium level.
• C. Serum calcium level.
• D. Serum glucose level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Monitoring the serum potassium level allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of this medication in lowering the elevated potassium levels. Serum sodium (A), calcium (C), and glucose (D) levels are not directly impacted by the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.

3. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?

• A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
• B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
• C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
• D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.

4. A 20-year-old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
• B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
• C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
• D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to educate the client on the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation. Although it's crucial to respect the client's beliefs, providing education ensures the client receives accurate information to make informed decisions about her hygiene practices. By offering teaching first, the nurse can address any misconceptions or concerns the client may have while promoting optimal hygiene practices for overall well-being. Choice A should not be the first action as it does not address the client's potential misinformation about hygiene. Choice B is not ideal as it only offers a temporary solution without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C is not the priority as the immediate concern is the client's personal hygiene practices.

5. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

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