Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL.
• D. The client's temperature is 100.4°F (38°C).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) (D) is the most concerning finding for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as it may indicate an infection, which poses a significant risk. Monitoring blood glucose level (A), blood pressure (B), and serum albumin (C) are also important, but an elevated temperature suggests a potential serious complication that requires immediate attention.

2. Mr. Landon is scheduled to undergo a tracheostomy. Which nursing action is essential during tracheal suctioning?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant.
• B. Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning.
• C. Ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion.
• D. Assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position during suctioning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning is crucial to prevent hypoxia, which can occur during tracheal suctioning. Hypoxia can lead to serious complications, making the provision of oxygen essential in maintaining adequate oxygenation levels for the patient undergoing tracheal suctioning. Choice A is incorrect because using a water-soluble lubricant is not directly related to the essential nursing action during tracheal suctioning. Choice C is incorrect as ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion is a basic requirement and not the essential action for oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect because assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position is beneficial for comfort and airway alignment but is not as crucial as administering oxygen to prevent hypoxia.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer 2 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which action should the nurse implement to ensure the client’s safety?

• A. Obtain informed consent from the client for the PRBC transfusion
• B. Review the client’s medical history for a history of transfusion reactions
• C. Assess the client’s baseline vital signs before starting the transfusion
• D. Verify the blood type and crossmatch with another licensed nurse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the blood type and crossmatch with another licensed nurse is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions and ensure the client's safety. This step helps confirm that the correct blood type is being transfused to the client, reducing the risk of adverse reactions and promoting safe care. Obtaining informed consent (Choice A) is important but not directly related to ensuring the safety of the transfusion. Reviewing the client's medical history for transfusion reactions (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as verifying the blood type and crossmatching. Assessing baseline vital signs (Choice C) is a routine practice before transfusion but ensuring the correct blood type is a higher priority.

4. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of heart failure. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
• B. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• D. Increase protein intake to promote healing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting sodium intake to 2 grams per day (B) is a crucial dietary instruction for clients with heart failure. It helps manage fluid retention and reduces the workload on the heart. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid retention, worsening heart failure symptoms. Increasing fluid intake (A) can further exacerbate fluid overload in heart failure patients. Avoiding foods high in potassium (C) is not necessary unless the client has hyperkalemia; in heart failure, potassium restriction is not a primary dietary concern. Increasing protein intake (D) is not the priority for heart failure management; focusing on sodium restriction is more beneficial.

Similar Questions