Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL.
• D. The client's temperature is 100.4°F (38°C).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) (D) is the most concerning finding for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as it may indicate an infection, which poses a significant risk. Monitoring blood glucose level (A), blood pressure (B), and serum albumin (C) are also important, but an elevated temperature suggests a potential serious complication that requires immediate attention.

2. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. What instruction should the nurse provide to prepare the client for the procedure?

• A. Drink clear liquids for 24 hours before the procedure
• B. Take a laxative the morning of the procedure
• C. Eat a light meal before the procedure
• D. Avoid drinking fluids for 4 hours before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for preparing a client for a colonoscopy is to drink clear liquids for 24 hours before the procedure. This step helps to ensure the bowel is adequately cleared for the colonoscopy, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon.

3. A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client’s kidney function?

• A. Monitor the client’s urine output
• B. Check for abdominal tenderness
• C. Evaluate the client’s fluid intake
• D. Inspect the client’s skin for edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys’ ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.

4. After informing an older client that an IV line needs to be inserted, the client becomes very apprehensive, loudly expressing a dislike for all healthcare providers and nurses. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask the client to remain quiet so the procedure can be performed safely.
• B. Concentrate on completing the insertion as efficiently as possible.
• C. Calmly reassure the client that the discomfort will be temporary.
• D. Tell the client a joke as a means of distraction from the procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should respond by calmly reassuring the client that the discomfort from the IV insertion will be temporary. By providing reassurance and addressing the client's concerns, the nurse can help reduce the client's apprehension and create a more supportive environment for the procedure.

5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

Similar Questions