Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Limit sodium intake to 2,300 mg per day
• B. Engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes daily
• C. Consume a diet high in saturated fats
• D. Avoid alcohol consumption completely

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in moderate exercise for 30 minutes daily is a crucial lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. Regular physical activity helps lower blood pressure, improve cardiovascular health, and overall well-being. It is recommended to engage in activities like brisk walking, cycling, or swimming to achieve these benefits. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting sodium intake, avoiding a diet high in saturated fats, and reducing alcohol consumption are also important lifestyle modifications for hypertension management, but engaging in moderate exercise is the most appropriate initial instruction for this client.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the healthcare professional include in this procedure?

• A. Dilute each of the medications with sterile water prior to administration.
• B. Mix the medications in one syringe before opening the feeding tube.
• C. Administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications.
• D. Withdraw any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To maintain patency and ensure proper medication delivery, water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications. This helps prevent clogging of the tube and ensures that both medications are delivered effectively without interference from remnants of the previous medication. Diluting the medications with sterile water before administration (choice A) is unnecessary and may alter the medication concentration. Mixing the medications in one syringe (choice B) could lead to interactions or chemical reactions between the medications. Withdrawing fluid from the tube before instilling each medication (choice D) is not required and may increase the risk of tube displacement or misplacement.

3. The client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack.
• B. Instruct the client regarding the importance of the covering.
• C. Reapply the covering after filling it with fresh ice.
• D. Ask the client how long the ice pack was applied to the skin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary action for the nurse is to assess the skin under the ice pack to check for any potential thermal injury. This assessment is crucial to ensure the client's safety. Once the skin assessment is done and no harm is found, the nurse can proceed with other necessary actions such as providing instructions to the client or replacing the covering with fresh ice.

4. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?

• A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
• B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
• C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
• D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mmHg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.

5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

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