Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. What instruction should the nurse provide to prepare the client for the procedure?

• A. Drink clear liquids for 24 hours before the procedure
• B. Take a laxative the morning of the procedure
• C. Eat a light meal before the procedure
• D. Avoid drinking fluids for 4 hours before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for preparing a client for a colonoscopy is to drink clear liquids for 24 hours before the procedure. This step helps to ensure the bowel is adequately cleared for the colonoscopy, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon.

2. A client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break to smoke a cigarette outside and states, 'I want to go outside now and smoke. It takes forever to get anything done here!' Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to use a nicotine patch.
• B. Reassure the client that it is almost time for another break.
• C. Have the client leave the unit with another staff member.
• D. Review the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break, it is essential to address their concerns effectively. Reviewing the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client provides concrete information, helps manage the client's expectations, and may alleviate their frustration. This intervention promotes transparency and empowers the client by clarifying the timing of their desired break, fostering a therapeutic and collaborative nurse-client relationship. Encouraging the client to use a nicotine patch (Choice A) does not address the client's immediate frustration with the break schedule. Reassuring the client about another break (Choice B) may temporarily placate them but does not address the underlying issue. Having the client leave the unit with another staff member (Choice C) may not be feasible or appropriate at that moment and does not address the client's concerns.

3. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Dependent rubor.
• B. Absence of hair on the lower legs.
• C. Shiny, thin skin on the legs.
• D. Pain in the legs when walking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

4. A healthcare professional stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later, the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the healthcare professional for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?

• A. The Patient's Bill of Rights protects clients from malicious intents, so the healthcare professional could lose the case.
• B. The lawsuit may be settled out of court, but the healthcare professional's license is likely to be revoked.
• C. There will be no judgment against the healthcare professional, whose actions were protected under the Good Samaritan Act.
• D. The client will win because the four elements of negligence (duty, breach, causation, and damages) can be proved.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare professionals who provide care in good faith and offer reasonable assistance in emergencies. This law shields them from malpractice claims, even if the outcome for the client is unfavorable. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is likely to be protected from judgment under the Good Samaritan Act. Choice A is incorrect because the situation does not involve the Patient's Bill of Rights, but rather the Good Samaritan Act. Choice B is incorrect as the license revocation is not a typical outcome in Good Samaritan cases. Choice D is incorrect as the Good Samaritan Act provides immunity from liability in such emergency situations.

5. When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse to follow?

• A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed, and assist the client in moving to the chair.
• B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
• C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward underneath the axillae.
• D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and gently move the client to the chair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B is the best procedure for the nurse to follow when assisting a client from the bed to a chair. This option emphasizes the correct positioning of the nurse with feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's, providing a stable base of support. By standing and pivoting the client into the chair, the nurse can maintain control and stability, especially around the client's knees, ensuring a safe transfer.

Similar Questions