Nursing Elites

1. A client has been given a prescription for tetracycline HCL (Sumycin). The nurse should emphasize the client to

• A. Take the medication with food or milk
• B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure
• C. Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes
• D. Expect a yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes.' Tetracycline can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to jaundice which may present as yellowing of the skin or eyes. This is a serious side effect that the nurse should emphasize to the client. Choice A is incorrect because tetracycline should generally be taken on an empty stomach, not with food or milk. Choice B is also incorrect as tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, but it is not directly related to yellowing skin or eyes. Choice D is incorrect because tetracycline can cause yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth, but this is usually seen in children under 8 years of age, not a common concern for adult clients.

2. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports feeling chilled and short of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
• C. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving a blood transfusion reports feeling chilled and short of breath is to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider. These symptoms could indicate a transfusion reaction, which can be serious and even life-threatening. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further adverse reactions, and notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely intervention and appropriate management. Administering antihistamines, acetaminophen, or diphenhydramine is not the priority in this situation and may delay necessary actions to address the potential transfusion reaction.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing increased shortness of breath and fatigue. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
• C. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with COPD experiencing increased shortness of breath and fatigue is to check the client's oxygen saturation. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate the client's respiratory status promptly. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the oxygen saturation. Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position (Choice C) can help improve breathing but should not precede oxygen saturation assessment. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) may be needed based on the oxygen saturation results, but assessing it first is crucial.

4. An adult male is brought to the ER after a motorcycle accident with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which finding requires immediate attention?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears suggest a severe head injury. Projectile vomiting is a red flag symptom that may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate attention to prevent further neurological deterioration. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) typically indicates peritonitis and is not directly related to the primary head injury. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally (choice B) suggest a pneumothorax or hemothorax, which are important but not as immediately life-threatening in this context. Rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) is concerning for rib fractures or pulmonary contusion, which are also important but do not take precedence over addressing the potential increased intracranial pressure.

5. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

• A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
• C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
• D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

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