Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a group of clients with the help of a PN. Which nursing actions should the nurse assign to the PN?

• A. All of the above
• B. Administer a dose of insulin per sliding scale for a client with Type 2 DM
• C. Obtain postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty
• D. Perform daily surgical dressing change for a client who had an abdominal hysterectomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: All of these tasks fall within the PN's scope of practice, which includes performing surgical dressing changes, taking postoperative vital signs, and administering insulin under supervision. The RN can delegate these tasks to the PN safely. Choice A is the correct answer because all the tasks mentioned are appropriate for delegation to a PN. Choice B should not be assigned to a PN as only RNs should administer insulin. Choice C is suitable for delegation to a PN as obtaining vital signs falls within their scope of practice. Choice D is also appropriate for delegation to a PN as performing surgical dressing changes is within their scope of practice.

2. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing paranoia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Reassure the client that their fears are unfounded.
• B. Place the client in a private room to reduce stimuli.
• C. Provide the client with a distraction to redirect their attention.
• D. Encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging clients with paranoia to express their concerns and validating their feelings is crucial as it helps establish trust and reduce anxiety. This approach also aids in building a therapeutic relationship. Reassuring the client that their fears are unfounded (Choice A) may invalidate their feelings and worsen trust. Placing the client in a private room to reduce stimuli (Choice B) may be helpful in some situations but does not address the underlying issue of paranoia. Providing a distraction (Choice C) may temporarily shift the client's focus but does not address the root cause of the paranoia. Therefore, the priority intervention is to encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.

3. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

4. In monitoring tissue perfusion in a client following an above the knee amputation (AKA), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Evaluate closest proximal pulse.
• B. Note amount and color of wound drainage.
• C. Observe for swelling around the stump.
• D. Assess skin elasticity of the stump.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After an amputation, monitoring the pulse closest to the stump is crucial in evaluating tissue perfusion and the overall health of the limb. Swelling and changes in perfusion can indicate complications such as blood clots or infection. Assessing the proximal pulse helps the nurse ensure adequate blood flow to the remaining limb, thereby preventing further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less directly related to monitoring tissue perfusion in this scenario and are more focused on wound healing and stump care.

5. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

• A. Decreased liver enzymes.
• B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
• C. High bilirubin levels.
• D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

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