Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a group of clients with the help of a PN. Which nursing actions should the nurse assign to the PN?

• A. All of the above
• B. Administer a dose of insulin per sliding scale for a client with Type 2 DM
• C. Obtain postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty
• D. Perform daily surgical dressing change for a client who had an abdominal hysterectomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: All of these tasks fall within the PN's scope of practice, which includes performing surgical dressing changes, taking postoperative vital signs, and administering insulin under supervision. The RN can delegate these tasks to the PN safely. Choice A is the correct answer because all the tasks mentioned are appropriate for delegation to a PN. Choice B should not be assigned to a PN as only RNs should administer insulin. Choice C is suitable for delegation to a PN as obtaining vital signs falls within their scope of practice. Choice D is also appropriate for delegation to a PN as performing surgical dressing changes is within their scope of practice.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
• B. Assess for gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea or diarrhea.
• C. Monitor for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat.
• D. Administer DMARDs with meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat, is crucial when a client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). DMARDs can suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Early detection of infections allows for prompt treatment and helps prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver toxicity and gastrointestinal side effects are possible side effects of DMARDs, monitoring for signs of infection takes priority due to the increased risk of infections associated with these medications.

3. While auscultating heart sounds, the nurse hears a swishing sound. How should this sound be documented?

• A. Heart murmur.
• B. Murmur.
• C. S3 sound.
• D. S4 sound.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Murmur.' A murmur is a swishing sound heard during auscultation, typically caused by turbulent blood flow through the heart or valves. Choices C and D, 'S3 sound' and 'S4 sound,' refer to specific heart sounds associated with different cardiac conditions, not the general description of a swishing sound. Choice A, 'Heart murmur,' is redundant as 'murmur' alone is sufficient to describe the swishing sound heard.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute.
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
• D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a critical assessment finding in a client prescribed with digoxin, as it can indicate digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia is a known side effect of digoxin, and if left unaddressed, it can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Both choices B, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and C, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, fall within normal ranges and do not raise immediate concerns. Choice D, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, is also within normal limits and does not indicate digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should report bradycardia promptly to prevent further complications.

5. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?

• A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
• B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
• D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.

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