Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed home oxygen therapy. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Ensure that the client uses oxygen continuously at night.
• B. Instruct the client to avoid smoking and exposure to smoke.
• C. Teach the client how to clean and replace the oxygen tubing.
• D. Instruct the client to increase their fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with COPD prescribed home oxygen therapy is to educate them on how to clean and replace the oxygen tubing. This is crucial to prevent infections and ensure the effectiveness of the oxygen delivery system. Option A is not necessary as oxygen therapy is usually prescribed as needed, not continuously at night. While smoking cessation and avoiding smoke exposure are important in COPD management, it is not directly related to home oxygen therapy. Increasing fluid intake is beneficial for some conditions but is not specifically related to home oxygen therapy for COPD.

2. A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Urine output increases to 25 mL/hour
• B. Client reports feeling less fatigued
• C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
• D. White blood cell count decreases from 15,000 to 9,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.

3. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?

• A. Medicaid
• B. Medicare
• C. COBRA
• D. Private insurance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes a sedative for a client with severe hypothyroidism. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider.
• B. Administer the sedative as prescribed.
• C. Advise the nurse to administer the medication as prescribed.
• D. Offer to administer the medication since the nurse is concerned.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider. Sedatives can worsen symptoms of hypothyroidism, so it is crucial to ensure the safety of the prescribed medication. Administering the sedative without further consultation could lead to adverse effects. Simply advising the nurse to administer the medication without addressing the need for review is not the best course of action. Offering to administer the medication without proper assessment or consulting the provider is not appropriate and could potentially harm the client.

5. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.

Similar Questions