HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed home oxygen therapy. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Ensure that the client uses oxygen continuously at night.
- B. Instruct the client to avoid smoking and exposure to smoke.
- C. Teach the client how to clean and replace the oxygen tubing.
- D. Instruct the client to increase their fluid intake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with COPD prescribed home oxygen therapy is to educate them on how to clean and replace the oxygen tubing. This is crucial to prevent infections and ensure the effectiveness of the oxygen delivery system. Option A is not necessary as oxygen therapy is usually prescribed as needed, not continuously at night. While smoking cessation and avoiding smoke exposure are important in COPD management, it is not directly related to home oxygen therapy. Increasing fluid intake is beneficial for some conditions but is not specifically related to home oxygen therapy for COPD.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
- B. Assess for gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea or diarrhea.
- C. Monitor for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat.
- D. Administer DMARDs with meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat, is crucial when a client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). DMARDs can suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Early detection of infections allows for prompt treatment and helps prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver toxicity and gastrointestinal side effects are possible side effects of DMARDs, monitoring for signs of infection takes priority due to the increased risk of infections associated with these medications.
3. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
4. A client with a history of closed head injury has a radial artery catheter in place and complains of numbness and pain distal to the insertion site. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the site for further complications.
- B. Promptly remove the catheter from the radial artery.
- C. Elevate the client’s arm above the heart.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for surgery.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weak pulse and numbness distal to a radial artery catheter may indicate occlusion or damage to the artery, and immediate removal of the catheter is necessary to prevent complications. Therefore, promptly removing the catheter from the radial artery (Choice B) is the correct action. Monitoring the site (Choice A) would delay necessary intervention, elevating the client's arm (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue, and notifying the healthcare provider for surgery (Choice D) without removing the catheter promptly could lead to further complications.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
- C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
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