HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with cirrhosis develops ascites. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Administer diuretics as prescribed.
- B. Restrict fluid intake to manage fluid overload.
- C. Position the client in Fowler’s position and assess for respiratory distress.
- D. Measure the client's abdominal girth daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restrict fluid intake to manage fluid overload. In a client with cirrhosis developing ascites, the priority intervention is to restrict fluid intake. This helps manage fluid overload, prevent further complications, such as respiratory distress or kidney impairment, and reduce the accumulation of ascitic fluid. Administering diuretics may be a part of the treatment plan, but the primary focus should be on fluid restriction. Positioning the client in Fowler’s position and measuring the abdominal girth are important interventions but not the priority when managing ascites in cirrhosis.
2. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Assess for signs of infection.
- B. Monitor the client’s fluid intake and output.
- C. Check the client’s capillary blood glucose level.
- D. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.
3. A client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed enoxaparin. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Rotate injection sites to prevent bruising.
- B. Administer the injection in the abdomen only.
- C. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising.
- D. Avoid contact sports to prevent injury.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to report any unusual bleeding or bruising. Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant, and these symptoms could indicate excessive anticoagulation. Choice A is incorrect because with enoxaparin, injections are usually given in the abdomen, not rotated to different sites. Choice D is not directly related to the medication but is a general precaution for individuals at risk of injury.
4. Following a lumbar puncture, a client complains of worsening headache when sitting up. What complication is the client likely experiencing?
- A. A migraine headache
- B. An infection from the puncture site
- C. Low blood sugar
- D. Spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is likely experiencing spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache), a common complication of a lumbar puncture. This leakage results in a reduction of cerebrospinal fluid volume around the brain and spinal cord, leading to a headache that worsens when in an upright position due to reduced buoyancy. A migraine headache (Choice A) is not typically associated with a lumbar puncture. Infection from the puncture site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and warmth, rather than worsening headache. Low blood sugar (Choice C) is not a common complication of lumbar puncture and would not typically manifest as a worsening headache when sitting up.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's potassium levels closely.
- B. Assess for signs of hyperkalemia.
- C. Instruct the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Increase the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for signs of hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Therefore, the nurse's priority intervention should be to assess the client for signs of hyperkalemia, such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and potentially dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely (choice A) is important but assessing for signs of hyperkalemia takes precedence. Instructing the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods (choice C) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in this case. Increasing the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of spironolactone.
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