Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis develops ascites. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer diuretics as prescribed.
• B. Restrict fluid intake to manage fluid overload.
• C. Position the client in Fowler’s position and assess for respiratory distress.
• D. Measure the client's abdominal girth daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restrict fluid intake to manage fluid overload. In a client with cirrhosis developing ascites, the priority intervention is to restrict fluid intake. This helps manage fluid overload, prevent further complications, such as respiratory distress or kidney impairment, and reduce the accumulation of ascitic fluid. Administering diuretics may be a part of the treatment plan, but the primary focus should be on fluid restriction. Positioning the client in Fowler’s position and measuring the abdominal girth are important interventions but not the priority when managing ascites in cirrhosis.

2. A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?

• A. I am one out of every 4 women that get fibroids, and among women my age, between the 30s or 40s, fibroids occur more frequently.
• B. My fibroids are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.
• C. The associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and pain, urinary incontinence, frequent urination or urine retention, and constipation.
• D. Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that do not cause symptoms do not necessarily need to be removed unless they pose other health risks. Choice A provides accurate information about the prevalence of fibroids among women of the woman's age group. Choice B correctly describes fibroids as noncancerous tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with fibroids, which is relevant information. However, choice D is incorrect as fibroids that are asymptomatic or not causing problems usually do not require treatment, unless they lead to complications or health risks.

3. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
• B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
• C. Recent history of smoking.
• D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.

5. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to

• A. Exercise doing weight-bearing activities
• B. Exercise to reduce weight
• C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
• D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in managing osteoporosis as they help strengthen bones. Choice A is the correct answer because weight-bearing activities, such as walking, dancing, or weight training, help stimulate bone formation and strengthen bones, which is essential in managing osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on the type of exercise rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect because avoiding exercise altogether can lead to further bone density loss, and it is important to engage in safe weight-bearing activities. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of exercise in osteoporosis is to improve bone density through weight-bearing activities.

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