Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate the legs to reduce swelling.
• B. Restrict fluids to reduce fluid overload.
• C. Administer furosemide to reduce fluid overload.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a diuretic like furosemide is the priority intervention for a client with cirrhosis, ascites, and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis. Elevating the legs may provide some symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Restricting fluids is not appropriate initially as the client needs proper hydration while managing fluid balance. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the first action to address the immediate fluid overload in this client.

2. Which activity is most important for a client recovering from a hip replacement to avoid during the first few weeks of recovery?

• A. Sitting in a chair for short periods
• B. Crossing the legs while sitting
• C. Walking with assistance
• D. Performing light stretching exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crossing the legs while sitting. Cross-leg position after a hip replacement can significantly increase the risk of hip dislocation. During the first few weeks of recovery, it is crucial for clients to avoid crossing their legs to protect the new joint. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical during the initial recovery phase. Sitting in a chair for short periods, walking with assistance, and performing light stretching exercises are generally encouraged activities that can help in the recovery process without posing a significant risk of complications like hip dislocation.

3. An adult male is brought to the ER after a motorcycle accident with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which finding requires immediate attention?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears suggest a severe head injury. Projectile vomiting is a red flag symptom that may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate attention to prevent further neurological deterioration. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) typically indicates peritonitis and is not directly related to the primary head injury. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally (choice B) suggest a pneumothorax or hemothorax, which are important but not as immediately life-threatening in this context. Rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) is concerning for rib fractures or pulmonary contusion, which are also important but do not take precedence over addressing the potential increased intracranial pressure.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid frequent urination at night.
• B. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
• C. Avoid potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges.
• D. Monitor the client’s potassium levels weekly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances, so adequate fluid intake is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is typically taken in the morning to avoid nighttime urination. Choice C is incorrect as potassium-rich foods should not be avoided but monitored, as hydrochlorothiazide can cause potassium loss. Choice D is incorrect as potassium levels should be monitored regularly, but not necessarily weekly, unless indicated by the healthcare provider.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
• B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
• C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
• D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.

Similar Questions