HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Elevate the legs to reduce swelling.
- B. Restrict fluids to reduce fluid overload.
- C. Administer furosemide to reduce fluid overload.
- D. Monitor the client's intake and output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering a diuretic like furosemide is the priority intervention for a client with cirrhosis, ascites, and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis. Elevating the legs may provide some symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Restricting fluids is not appropriate initially as the client needs proper hydration while managing fluid balance. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the first action to address the immediate fluid overload in this client.
2. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?
- A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
- B. Missed a dose of insulin
- C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
- D. Overexerted during exercise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.
3. A client receiving full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding develops diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse take?
- A. Stop the feeding and provide IV fluids.
- B. Dilute the feeding to half strength and continue at the same rate.
- C. Reduce the feeding rate and monitor for improvement.
- D. Add fiber to the client's diet to resolve diarrhea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client develops diarrhea from continuous enteral tube feeding, diluting the feeding to half strength and continuing at the same rate is the appropriate intervention. This helps reduce the strength of the feeding, minimizing gastrointestinal upset while still providing necessary nutrition. Stopping the feeding abruptly (Choice A) may lead to nutritional deficits. Simply reducing the feeding rate (Choice C) may not effectively address the issue of diarrhea. Adding fiber (Choice D) could potentially worsen the diarrhea in this scenario instead of resolving it.
4. To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, what must the nurse do?
- A. Apply suction for no more than 10 seconds
- B. Maintain sterile technique
- C. Lubricate 3 to 4 inches of the catheter tip
- D. Withdraw catheter in a circular motion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply suction for no more than 10 seconds. Prolonged suctioning can lead to hypoxia, so it is essential to limit the suctioning time. Maintaining sterile technique (choice B) is important to prevent infections but is not directly related to preventing hypoxia during suctioning. Lubricating the catheter tip (choice C) helps with insertion but does not specifically address hypoxia prevention. Withdrawing the catheter in a circular motion (choice D) is not a standard practice during tracheostomy suctioning and does not help prevent hypoxia.
5. A male client with schizophrenia is socially reclusive and pacing in the hallway. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
- B. Encourage the client to rest.
- C. Plan an activity that includes physical exercise.
- D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. In this situation, the client's behavior suggests agitation and restlessness, which could potentially escalate. Observation is crucial to monitor any changes in behavior, assess for signs of distress, and ensure the client's safety. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for managing the client's behavior. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) might not be effective if the client is highly agitated. Planning an activity that includes physical exercise (Choice C) could exacerbate the situation rather than address the current behavior. Therefore, the priority is to observe the client closely to provide appropriate support and intervention as needed.
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