Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate the legs to reduce swelling.
• B. Restrict fluids to reduce fluid overload.
• C. Administer furosemide to reduce fluid overload.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a diuretic like furosemide is the priority intervention for a client with cirrhosis, ascites, and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis. Elevating the legs may provide some symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Restricting fluids is not appropriate initially as the client needs proper hydration while managing fluid balance. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the first action to address the immediate fluid overload in this client.

2. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving intravenous fluids and pain medication. What is the priority assessment for this client?

• A. Monitor bowel sounds
• B. Measure urine output
• C. Assess for abdominal tenderness
• D. Monitor blood glucose levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor blood glucose levels. Clients with acute pancreatitis are prone to hyperglycemia due to impaired insulin production. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While assessing bowel sounds, urine output, and abdominal tenderness are important in the overall care of a client with acute pancreatitis, monitoring blood glucose levels takes priority to address the immediate risk of hyperglycemia.

3. An older adult client with eye dryness reports itching and excessive tearing. Which medication group is most likely to have produced this client's symptoms?

• A. Antiinfectives and antidepressants.
• B. Anticoagulants and antihistamines.
• C. Antiretrovirals and antivirals.
• D. Antihypertensives and anticholinergics.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Antihypertensives and anticholinergics. Anticholinergics are known to cause dryness of secretions, including dry eyes, which can lead to symptoms of eye dryness, itching, and excessive tearing as reported by the client. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not typically cause the symptoms described by the client. Antiinfectives, antidepressants, anticoagulants, antihistamines, antiretrovirals, and antivirals do not commonly lead to dry eyes, itching, and excessive tearing.

4. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

• A. Mild impairment
• B. Moderate impairment
• C. Severe impairment
• D. Normal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing difficulty breathing. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator via nebulizer.
• B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed.
• D. Reposition the client to a side-lying position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing, increasing the client's oxygen flow rate is the priority intervention. This action helps to improve oxygenation and relieve shortness of breath. While bronchodilators and other medications may be necessary, providing immediate oxygen support is crucial. Elevating the head of the bed and repositioning the client can assist with breathing comfort but do not address the immediate need for improved oxygenation in COPD exacerbation.

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