Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperkalemia is receiving insulin and glucose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Monitor the client's sodium level.
• C. Monitor the client's calcium level.
• D. Monitor the client's potassium level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. When administering insulin and glucose in hyperkalemia, the aim is to shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, lowering elevated levels. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels closely is essential to prevent hypokalemia or further complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Monitoring sodium (Choice B) and calcium levels (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of hyperkalemia with insulin and glucose.

2. The nurse is providing care for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Increase the TPN infusion rate if the client is hungry
• B. Administer TPN via a peripheral IV line
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly
• D. Ensure the TPN solution is refrigerated at all times

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the client's plan of care is to monitor blood glucose levels regularly. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content of the solution. Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to ensure appropriate management of blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the TPN infusion rate based on hunger is not a valid parameter for adjusting TPN. Choice B is incorrect because TPN should be administered through a central line, not a peripheral IV line, to prevent complications. Choice D is incorrect because TPN solutions should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated.

3. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
• B. Assess for gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea or diarrhea.
• C. Monitor for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat.
• D. Administer DMARDs with meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat, is crucial when a client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). DMARDs can suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Early detection of infections allows for prompt treatment and helps prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver toxicity and gastrointestinal side effects are possible side effects of DMARDs, monitoring for signs of infection takes priority due to the increased risk of infections associated with these medications.

5. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
• C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
• D. Assess maternal vital signs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.

Similar Questions