HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. When assessing an IV site used for fluid replacement and medication administration, the client complains of tenderness when the arm is touched above the site. Which additional assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Cool skin at the IV insertion site
- B. Presence of fluid leaking around the IV catheter
- C. Swelling above the IV site
- D. Red streaks tracking the vein
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Red streaks tracking the vein." Red streaks indicate phlebitis, an inflammation of the vein that can lead to serious complications like infection or thrombophlebitis. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further damage. Choice A, cool skin at the IV insertion site, could indicate decreased circulation but is not as urgent as addressing phlebitis. Choice B, presence of fluid leaking around the IV catheter, may indicate infiltration or dislodgement of the catheter, requiring intervention but not as urgently as phlebitis. Choice C, swelling above the IV site, may suggest localized inflammation but doesn't pose an immediate threat like phlebitis does.
2. A client with Crohn's disease reports diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods.
- B. Administer antidiarrheal medication as prescribed.
- C. Encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity.
- D. Restrict fluid intake and monitor electrolytes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Crohn's disease reporting diarrhea is to encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity. A high-fiber diet helps manage diarrhea in Crohn's disease by adding bulk to the stool and promoting more regular bowel movements. Instructing the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it can further exacerbate diarrhea. Administering antidiarrheal medication (Choice B) without addressing the underlying cause may not be the best initial approach. Encouraging a high-fiber diet and physical activity (Choice C) is beneficial for managing symptoms. Restricting fluid intake and monitoring electrolytes (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration, which is a concern in clients with diarrhea.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
- B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing
- C. Barrel chest appearance
- D. A pulse oximetry reading of 88%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and the use of accessory muscles for breathing are concerning in COPD, they do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Similarly, a barrel chest appearance is a common finding in COPD and does not require urgent intervention compared to the critical need to address hypoxemia.
4. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?
- A. Decreased liver enzymes.
- B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
- C. High bilirubin levels.
- D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the emergency room with abdominal pain, polyuria, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous insulin.
- B. Start an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Obtain a blood glucose level.
- D. Administer an antiemetic.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first start an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention is crucial in addressing severe dehydration associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes. Administering intravenous insulin (Choice A) is important but should follow fluid resuscitation. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice C) is necessary but not as urgent as addressing the dehydration. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation.
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