Nursing Elites

1. When assessing an IV site used for fluid replacement and medication administration, the client complains of tenderness when the arm is touched above the site. Which additional assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Cool skin at the IV insertion site
• B. Presence of fluid leaking around the IV catheter
• C. Swelling above the IV site
• D. Red streaks tracking the vein

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Red streaks tracking the vein." Red streaks indicate phlebitis, an inflammation of the vein that can lead to serious complications like infection or thrombophlebitis. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further damage. Choice A, cool skin at the IV insertion site, could indicate decreased circulation but is not as urgent as addressing phlebitis. Choice B, presence of fluid leaking around the IV catheter, may indicate infiltration or dislodgement of the catheter, requiring intervention but not as urgently as phlebitis. Choice C, swelling above the IV site, may suggest localized inflammation but doesn't pose an immediate threat like phlebitis does.

2. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
• B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
• D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.

3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with asthma. Which statement indicates the client understands how to use a rescue inhaler?

• A. I will use my rescue inhaler every morning to prevent asthma attacks.
• B. I should use my rescue inhaler when I start to experience wheezing.
• C. I will use my rescue inhaler when my peak flow meter reading is in the green zone.
• D. I will only use my rescue inhaler before going to bed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should use my rescue inhaler when I start to experience wheezing.' A rescue inhaler is used during the onset of asthma symptoms, such as wheezing, to quickly open the airways. It is not intended for routine daily use or prevention, which is the role of a maintenance inhaler. Option A is incorrect because a rescue inhaler is not used for prevention but for immediate relief during an asthma attack. Option C is incorrect because the peak flow meter reading is used to monitor asthma control, not to determine when to use a rescue inhaler. Option D is incorrect because using a rescue inhaler only before going to bed does not address the need for immediate relief when wheezing or experiencing asthma symptoms.

4. The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients in an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. A 17-year-old client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hallways
• B. An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients
• C. A 16-year-old client with depression who refuses to eat meals
• D. A 15-year-old client with anxiety who is quietly reading in a corner

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by peers may escalate the situation, potentially leading to violence or self-harm. Addressing the situation quickly helps prevent harm and de-escalates the conflict. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate risks that require urgent intervention compared to the potential danger of a conflict escalating to violence with the client exhibiting antisocial behavior.

5. A client admitted to the ICU with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. What is the first intervention the nurse should implement?

• A. Evaluate the client's swallowing ability.
• B. Reorient the client frequently.
• C. Patch one eye to minimize confusion.
• D. Perform range of motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's swallowing ability. Osmotic demyelination can cause dysphagia, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing swallowing function is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client frequently (Choice B) is more suitable for confusion related to conditions like delirium. Patching one eye (Choice C) is a technique used for diplopia or double vision, not specifically indicated for osmotic demyelination. Performing range of motion exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for preventing complications of immobility but is not the priority intervention for osmotic demyelination.

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