a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis dvt is prescribed warfarin which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic e
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

2. A client reports unilateral leg swelling after a long flight. What complication is the nurse most concerned about?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Unilateral leg swelling following a long flight may indicate a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate attention. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, potentially blocking blood flow and leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dehydration, compartment syndrome, and oxygen saturation levels are not typically associated with unilateral leg swelling after a long flight. While dehydration can cause leg cramps, compartment syndrome is more commonly associated with trauma or injury, and oxygen saturation levels are not the primary concern in this scenario.

3. A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions are most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach tracheal suctioning techniques. Tracheal suctioning is crucial for maintaining a clear airway in clients with a tracheostomy. Without proper suctioning, secretions can accumulate and cause airway obstruction or respiratory infections. Educating the client on how to perform suctioning safely is a priority for discharge planning. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of tracheostomy care, but teaching tracheal suctioning techniques takes precedence due to its direct impact on airway patency and preventing complications.

4. A nurse assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fixed, dilated pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or brain injury, indicating a potentially serious neurological condition. Flaccid paralysis, although concerning, may not always indicate immediate life-threatening issues. Diminished spinal reflexes and reduced sensory responses are important neurological assessments but are not as acutely concerning as fixed, dilated pupils in this context.

5. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

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