HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.
2. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?
- A. Diminished bowel sounds
- B. Loss of appetite
- C. A cold, pale lower leg
- D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is cause for the most concern as it could indicate compromised blood circulation, potentially leading to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea are not directly related to the client's condition in atrial fibrillation and the heart rate discrepancy.
3. A nurse is performing CPR on an adult who went into cardiopulmonary arrest. Another nurse enters the room in response to the call. After checking the client's pulse and respirations, what should be the function of the second nurse?
- A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
- B. Go get the code cart
- C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
- D. Validate the client's advanced directive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The second nurse should assist with compressions or breathing to ensure the patient receives adequate care during CPR. This immediate intervention is crucial in maintaining blood circulation and oxygenation to vital organs. Choice A is incorrect because simply relieving the nurse performing CPR may lead to a delay in essential life-saving measures. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on providing direct assistance rather than fetching equipment. Choice D is incorrect as validating the client's advanced directive is not the priority in this emergency situation.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago. The primary goal of care at this time is to
- A. Limit the effects of tissue damage
- B. Relieve pain and anxiety
- C. Prevent arrhythmias
- D. Reduce anxiety
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Limit the effects of tissue damage.' After a myocardial infarction, the primary goal of care is to limit the damage to the heart muscle. This includes interventions to improve blood flow, oxygenation, and prevent further complications. Choice B ('Relieve pain and anxiety') is important but secondary to addressing tissue damage. Choice C ('Prevent arrhythmias') is also crucial but falls under the broader goal of limiting tissue damage. Choice D ('Reduce anxiety') is essential for holistic care but is not the primary goal immediately after a myocardial infarction.
5. Which foods should a healthcare provider recommend for a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to avoid?
- A. Fresh fruit and vegetables
- B. Foods sweetened with aspartame
- C. Bread with honey
- D. Gluten-rich bread
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Foods sweetened with aspartame.' Children with PKU must avoid foods containing aspartame because it breaks down into phenylalanine, which can worsen their condition. Choice A, fresh fruit and vegetables, are generally healthy and safe for individuals with PKU. Choice C, bread with honey, is also safe unless the bread contains artificial sweeteners like aspartame. Choice D, gluten-rich bread, is not specifically problematic for individuals with PKU unless it contains aspartame or other substances high in phenylalanine.
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