Nursing Elites

1. A client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on the thorax tells the nurse about having difficulty sleeping. What is the probable cause of this problem?

• A. Frequent cough
• B. Pain
• C. Nocturia
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain. Pain is a common and significant symptom of Herpes Zoster (shingles) that can result in difficulty sleeping. The pain associated with shingles can be intense and persistent, making it challenging for the client to find a comfortable position to sleep. Nocturia (choice C), which is excessive urination during the night, is not directly related to difficulty sleeping in this context. While both frequent cough (choice A) and dyspnea (choice D) can cause sleep disturbances, in a client with Herpes Zoster on the thorax, pain is the most probable cause of sleep difficulty.

2. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer?

• A. A 25-year-old female with a history of sexually transmitted diseases
• B. A 42-year-old male who has worked in a lumber yard for 10 years
• C. A 55-year-old female who has had numerous episodes of bacterial cystitis
• D. An 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use, which is reflected in an 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for developing bladder cancer. Choices A, B, and C are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. While sexually transmitted diseases, certain occupational exposures, and recurrent urinary tract infections may pose other health risks, they are not specifically associated with an elevated risk of bladder cancer.

3. What is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?

• A. Increased blood pressure.
• B. Increased urine output.
• C. Decreased pain.
• D. Decreased premature ventricular contractions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. This diuretic effect helps to reduce fluid volume in the body, making it an expected outcome when a client is receiving furosemide. Choice A, increased blood pressure, is incorrect because furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its diuretic effect. Choice C, decreased pain, and choice D, decreased premature ventricular contractions, are unrelated to the pharmacological action of furosemide.

4. An older adult client with a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough. The client is anxious and complaining of a dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assist the client to an upright position
• B. Administer a prescribed sedative
• C. Apply a high-flow Venturi mask
• D. Encourage the client to drink water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to an upright position is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. An upright position helps optimize lung expansion and aids in improving ventilation, which can alleviate shortness of breath. This position also assists in reducing anxiety by providing a sense of control and comfort. Administering a sedative (Choice B) may further depress the respiratory drive in a client with COPD and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary. Applying a high-flow Venturi mask (Choice C) may be indicated later based on oxygenation needs, but the immediate focus should be on positioning. Encouraging the client to drink water (Choice D) may not directly address the respiratory distress and anxiety experienced by the client.

5. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Administering diuretics.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering beta-blockers.
• D. Administering vasodilators.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is a priority intervention in heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation, alleviate hypoxemia, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy is crucial in managing acute heart failure exacerbations. While diuretics (Choice A) are commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload, administering oxygen takes precedence due to its immediate impact on oxygen delivery. Beta-blockers (Choice C) and vasodilators (Choice D) are also important in heart failure management, but in the acute setting, ensuring adequate oxygen supply is the priority.

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