Nursing Elites

1. Four hours following surgical repair of a compound fracture of the right ulna, the nurse is unable to palpate the client's right radial pulse. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately.
• B. Complete a neurovascular assessment of the right hand.
• C. Elevate the client's right hand on one or two pillows.
• D. Measure the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Completing a neurovascular assessment of the right hand is the priority in this situation. This assessment will help determine the circulation, sensation, and movement of the affected limb, ensuring there are no complications like compartment syndrome or impaired perfusion. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice A) might be necessary but should come after assessing the client's neurovascular status. Elevating the client's right hand (Choice C) can be helpful in some cases but should not precede a neurovascular assessment. Measuring the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate (Choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing a potential vascular compromise in the limb.

2. In a client with heart failure presenting bilateral +4 edema of the right ankle extending up to midcalf while sitting with legs dependent, what is the priority goal?

• A. Decrease venous congestion.
• B. Maintain normal respirations.
• C. Maintain body temperature.
• D. Prevent injury to lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority goal in this scenario is to decrease venous congestion. By elevating the legs above the heart level, venous return is improved, reducing congestion in the lower extremities. This intervention helps decrease swelling and prevents complications such as impaired tissue perfusion. Maintaining normal respirations and body temperature are important aspects of care but are secondary to addressing the immediate issue of venous congestion. Preventing injury to lower extremities is also essential but takes precedence after managing the venous congestion to prevent further complications.

3. A client who is postmenopausal and has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months asks, “I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your immune system becomes less effective as you age.
• B. Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection.
• C. You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area.
• D. It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Low estrogen levels in postmenopausal women decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area, causing tissue changes that predispose them to infection, including urethritis. This is a common reason for urethritis in postmenopausal women. While immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases can cause urethritis, the most likely reason in this case is the low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene practices are usually not a significant factor in the development of urethritis.

4. During spring break, a young adult presents to the urgent care clinic and reports a stiff neck, a fever for the past 6 hours, and a headache. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?

• A. Initiate isolation precautions
• B. Administer an antipyretic
• C. Draw blood cultures
• D. Prepare for lumbar puncture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate isolation precautions. This is the priority action because the patient presents with symptoms that could be indicative of meningitis, an infectious disease that requires isolation to prevent its spread. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help manage the fever but does not address the need for isolation. Drawing blood cultures (Choice C) and preparing for a lumbar puncture (Choice D) are important steps in diagnosing meningitis but should come after initiating isolation precautions to prevent potential transmission of the infection to others.

5. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is a primary goal of treatment?

• A. Improving oxygenation.
• B. Reducing inflammation.
• C. Improving airflow.
• D. Reducing airway constriction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal in the treatment of asthma is to improve airflow. Asthma is characterized by airway inflammation, constriction, and increased mucus production, leading to airflow limitation. Improving airflow helps ensure adequate oxygenation and reduces symptoms. While reducing inflammation and airway constriction are important aspects of asthma management, the primary goal is to optimize airflow to improve respiratory function and quality of life.

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