The nurse is reviewing a client's electrocardiogram and determines the PR interval (PRI) is prolonged. What does this finding indicate?

A. Initiation of the impulses from a location outside the SA node

B. Inability of the SA node to initiate an impulse at the normal rate

C. Increased conduction time from the SA node to the AV junction

D. Interference with the conduction through one or both ventricles

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When the PR interval is prolonged, it signifies an increased conduction time from the SA node through the AV junction. This finding is characteristic of a first-degree heart block where there is a delay in the electrical conduction at the level of the AV node. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the significance of a prolonged PR interval.

A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with a history of COPD, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, necessitating immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it suggests the client is struggling to breathe adequately. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but may be expected in COPD patients; it requires monitoring and intervention but is not as immediately concerning as the use of accessory muscles. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is within a normal range and, although slightly elevated, may be a typical response to pneumonia. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) can be a common finding in pneumonia and are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the use of accessory muscles.

A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
• B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
• C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
• D. Perform a digital rectal examination

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.

The healthcare provider prescribes carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM for a multigravida postpartum client who is experiencing heavy, bright red vaginal bleeding. Prior to administering this medication, which intervention should the RN implement?

• A. Give the prescribed antiemetic.
• B. Administer IV fluids.
• C. Prepare for possible blood transfusion.
• D. Monitor vital signs every 5 minutes.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hemabate can cause severe nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, so administering the prescribed antiemetic can help manage these side effects. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario to administer IV fluids. Choice C is not the priority at this stage as the client's condition does not necessitate an immediate blood transfusion. Choice D is unnecessary every 5 minutes; monitoring vital signs should be done but not at such a high frequency.

A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl
• C. Serum pH of 7.30
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), a serum pH of 7.30 is the most concerning value as it indicates acidosis, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not the most concerning in this scenario. A low serum potassium level (Choice A) may be expected due to cellular shift in hyperglycemia, a serum glucose level of 200 mg/dl (Choice B) is not as concerning compared to the extremely high initial glucose level, and a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (Choice D) is within the normal range and not the immediate priority.