Nursing Elites

1. A client with a traumatic brain injury becomes progressively less responsive to stimuli. The client has a 'Do Not Resuscitate' prescription, and the nurse observes that the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has stopped turning the client from side to side as previously scheduled. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the UAP to resume positioning the client on schedule
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Document the UAP's actions
• D. Discuss the situation with the client’s family

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuing to turn the client is crucial to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers, even if the client is less responsive. Advising the UAP to resume positioning the client on schedule is the most appropriate action in this situation. This action ensures that the client's care needs are met and helps prevent potential complications. Notifying the healthcare provider or documenting the UAP's actions may delay the necessary care for the client. Discussing the situation with the client's family is important but addressing the immediate care need of turning the client takes priority.

2. An adult male with schizophrenia who has been noncompliant in taking oral antipsychotic medications refuses a prescribed IM medication. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal
• B. Attempt to convince the client to take the medication
• C. Administer the medication without the client's consent
• D. Document the refusal and take no further action

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal. It is important for the healthcare provider to be informed so that they can decide on the next steps in the client's treatment, which may involve exploring alternative options or strategies. Attempting to convince the client to take the medication may not be effective, especially if the client is refusing. Administering the medication without the client's consent would violate the client's autonomy and rights. Simply documenting the refusal without further action may not address the client's treatment needs.

3. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before hemodialysis in a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD), monitoring serum potassium closely is crucial. ESRD patients are at risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to severe cardiac complications. Checking serum potassium levels helps in assessing and managing this electrolyte imbalance. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is a marker of kidney function but is not the most critical value to monitor before hemodialysis. Serum sodium (Choice C) may be affected in renal disease, but potassium is a more crucial electrolyte to monitor. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing anemia in ESRD but is not the primary focus before hemodialysis.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Presence of a new murmur
• D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An apical pulse of 58 beats per minute is concerning when administering digoxin because digoxin can further lower the heart rate, leading to bradycardia or heart block. Immediate intervention is required to prevent potential complications. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may indicate valvular issues but does not directly relate to the administration of digoxin. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute is also within normal limits and is not a priority concern when administering digoxin.

5. An elderly female client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in her right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes what pathology as the cause of her symptoms?

• A. Destruction of joint cartilage.
• B. Inflammation of synovial membrane.
• C. Formation of bone spurs.
• D. Reduction of joint space.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Osteoarthritis typically involves the destruction of joint cartilage, leading to pain and stiffness. This destruction of joint cartilage results in bone rubbing against bone, causing pain and reduced mobility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Inflammation of the synovial membrane (choice B) is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Formation of bone spurs (choice C) and reduction of joint space (choice D) are manifestations that can occur as a result of osteoarthritis but are not the primary pathology responsible for the symptoms of pain and stiffness.

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