HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum creatinine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen), monitoring serum potassium levels closely is crucial. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia is a potential risk in these clients. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important in assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy, but it is not the laboratory value that poses an immediate risk related to the medication. White blood cell count (choice B) and serum creatinine (choice D) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy and are not the priority laboratory values to monitor in this case.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer an IV dose of ciprofloxacin to a client with a urinary tract infection. Which client data requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dL (398 μmol/L SI)
- B. Temperature of 101.3°F
- C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- D. Heart rate of 88 bpm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 4.5 mg/dL indicates severe renal impairment, which requires immediate attention before administering ciprofloxacin. Elevated serum creatinine levels suggest decreased kidney function, and giving ciprofloxacin can further harm the kidneys. Monitoring and addressing renal function are crucial to prevent worsening of renal impairment and potential drug toxicity. The temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but in this scenario, the priority is to address the severe renal impairment before proceeding with ciprofloxacin administration.
4. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?
- A. Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decrease the risk of hyperkalemia
- C. Promote healing of injured nephrons
- D. Promote the elimination of albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on supplemental oxygen. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not an immediate concern. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
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