Nursing Elites

1. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

3. A 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give sugar water only.
• B. Offer the infant oral rehydration every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis presenting with projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. This is essential to maintain hydration before surgery. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is inadequate and does not address the need for proper hydration. Offering oral rehydration every 2 hours (Choice B) may not be effective in cases of severe vomiting and could lead to further fluid loss. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (Choice C) is an option, but in severe cases, intravenous fluid therapy is more effective in ensuring hydration and electrolyte balance.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports tingling in their feet. What is the nurse's best intervention?

• A. Advise the client to avoid wearing tight shoes.
• B. Refer the client to a podiatrist for foot care.
• C. Teach the client about blood sugar control and foot care.
• D. Administer insulin as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing tingling in their feet is to teach the client about blood sugar control and foot care. This is essential because tingling in the feet can be a sign of neuropathy, a common complication of diabetes. Educating the client on maintaining proper blood sugar levels and foot care practices can help manage neuropathy symptoms and prevent complications like ulcers or infections. Advising the client to avoid tight shoes (Choice A) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue. Referring the client to a podiatrist (Choice B) is important for foot care but does not directly address blood sugar control. Administering insulin (Choice D) is not the priority for managing tingling in the feet related to neuropathy.

5. What is the first action the nurse should take when treating a 6-year-old child who stepped on a rusty nail?

• A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water
• B. Instruct the parent about tetanus boosters
• C. Apply a sterile dressing and refer for a tetanus booster
• D. Elevate the foot and wrap in a compression bandage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when a 6-year-old child steps on a rusty nail is to instruct the parent about tetanus boosters. This is important because stepping on a rusty nail increases the risk of tetanus infection. Choice A is incorrect as cleansing the foot comes after addressing the tetanus risk. Choice C is not the first action and should be done after addressing the immediate risk of tetanus. Choice D is not necessary as the priority is to prevent tetanus infection.

Similar Questions