HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Improved blood pressure
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Reduced preload
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
- B. The client reports feeling weak and shaky
- C. The TPN bag is 5% dextrose
- D. The client reports feeling thirsty
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weakness and shakiness can indicate hypoglycemia, a potential complication of TPN. Immediate intervention is necessary to assess blood glucose levels and provide treatment as needed. Choice A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a 5% dextrose TPN bag is a standard concentration. Choice D is also incorrect as feeling thirsty is not a critical assessment finding requiring immediate intervention in this context.
3. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?
- A. Decreased urinary output
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Bibasilar crackles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct! In right-sided congestive heart failure, jugular vein distention is a common finding due to the backup of blood in the systemic circulation. This results in increased venous pressure, leading to jugular vein distention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased urinary output, pleural effusion, and bibasilar crackles are more commonly associated with other conditions such as kidney dysfunction, lung issues, and pulmonary edema.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. White blood cell count.
- B. Hemoglobin level.
- C. Serum creatinine level.
- D. Platelet count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the therapy and ensure the client is not developing anemia. Increased hemoglobin levels indicate successful treatment, whereas very high levels may suggest erythropoietin is overcorrecting the anemia. Monitoring the white blood cell count is not directly related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. Serum creatinine level is used to assess kidney function rather than the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Platelet count is not typically affected by erythropoietin therapy and is not a key indicator of its effectiveness.
5. An adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best?
- A. Unit tasks for each omitted teeth brushing.
- B. Candy for each successfully completed hygiene task.
- C. Privilege restriction for refusing hygiene tasks.
- D. Preferred activities or tokens for compliance.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best reinforcement strategy in this scenario is providing preferred activities or tokens for compliance. Positive reinforcement is effective in behavior modification programs for individuals with intellectual disabilities. Offering preferred activities or tokens serves as a reward for completing the desired behavior, in this case, oral hygiene tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not focus on reinforcing the desired behavior with positive incentives. Choice A does not provide a positive reinforcement for compliance but rather focuses on the omission of a task. Choice B uses candy, which may not be ideal for oral hygiene. Choice C involves punishment rather than positive reinforcement.
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