HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?
- A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
- B. Increased serum ammonia levels
- C. Decreased white blood cell count
- D. Soft, formed stool twice a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.
2. The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?
- A. A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B.
- B. A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus
- C. A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella
- D. A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with lupus erythematosus can be safely transferred to the antepartal unit as this condition does not pose a significant risk to other patients or staff. Choices A, C, and D should not be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit due to the potential risks they may pose to pregnant women and their unborn babies. Chronic hepatitis B, rubella, and herpes lesions of the vulva can be contagious and harmful in the perinatal setting.
3. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's statements?
- A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram
- B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure
- C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after the menstrual period ends
- D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to perform breast self-examination (BSE) 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is important because breasts are least tender during this phase of the menstrual cycle, allowing for a more effective examination. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, the immediate concern is the timing of BSE. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE practice just needs a slight adjustment in timing, not an in-depth review. Choice D is incorrect as the client should perform BSE when her breasts are least tender for optimal detection of any abnormalities.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory status
- B. Teach the client how to use the PCA pump
- C. Evaluate the client's pain level
- D. Assess the client's pain level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory status. When administering opioids like morphine sulfate via a PCA pump, it is crucial to closely monitor the client's respiratory status to detect signs of respiratory depression early. This is important for ensuring the client's safety while receiving pain management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while teaching the client to use the PCA pump and assessing or evaluating their pain level are essential aspects of care, monitoring respiratory status takes precedence due to the potential risks associated with opioid use.
5. A client who is 32-weeks pregnant is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?
- A. Wear a tight abdominal binder at all times
- B. Take a daily laxative to prevent constipation
- C. Refrain from sexual intercourse until your next appointment
- D. Restrict fluids to less than 1000 ml per day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Refraining from sexual intercourse helps prevent complications with partial placenta previa.
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