Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
• B. Increased serum ammonia levels
• C. Decreased white blood cell count
• D. Soft, formed stool twice a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.

2. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Limit sodium intake
• D. Take the medication at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.

3. A client is receiving a low dose of dopamine (Intropin) IV for the treatment of hypotension. Which indicator reflects that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased blood pressure is the desired effect of administering dopamine (Intropin) to treat hypotension. Dopamine acts by stimulating adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output. This results in an elevation of blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly reflect the therapeutic action of dopamine in treating hypotension. Increased heart rate may indicate the body compensating for low blood pressure, increased urinary output is more related to kidney function, and increased respiratory rate is often seen in response to respiratory issues, not the action of dopamine on hypotension.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory status
• B. Teach the client how to use the PCA pump
• C. Evaluate the client's pain level
• D. Assess the client's pain level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving opioids like morphine sulfate via a PCA pump, the most critical action for the nurse to implement is to monitor the client's respiratory status. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring respiratory status allows for early detection of any signs of respiratory compromise. Teaching the client how to use the PCA pump, evaluating pain level, and assessing pain level are important aspects of care but ensuring the client's safety by monitoring respiratory status takes precedence due to the potential risks associated with opioid administration.

5. A client who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) reports to the nurse of having a loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of ciprofloxacin.
• B. Instruct the client to take ciprofloxacin with food.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
• D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on ciprofloxacin reports loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms. These symptoms could indicate a need for a change in medication or additional treatment, which the healthcare provider would need to assess. Instructing the client to take ciprofloxacin with food (choice B) may help with gastrointestinal upset but will not address the reported symptoms. Reassuring the client (choice A) is important for providing emotional support but does not address the need for further evaluation. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice D) is generally beneficial but may not directly address the specific side effects reported.

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