HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?
- A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
- B. Increased serum ammonia levels
- C. Decreased white blood cell count
- D. Soft, formed stool twice a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.
2. A client with a C-6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider and implement which intervention?
- A. Place the client in reverse Trendelenburg position
- B. Prepare for intubation with an endotracheal tube
- C. Administer a pain medication to the client
- D. Instruct the client on deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a C-6 spinal injury exhibiting shallow respirations and dyspnea, these signs could indicate respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. Intubation with an endotracheal tube may be necessary to secure the airway and support adequate oxygenation. Placing the client in reverse Trendelenburg position, administering pain medication, or instructing on deep breathing exercises would not directly address the urgency of the respiratory distress in this situation, making them incorrect choices.
3. The nurse in a community health clinic is interviewing a female client who has three children. The client tells the nurse that she has a new man in her life, with whom she is having a sexual relationship, and that they both smoke cigarettes. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Oral contraceptives should be started to prevent an unwanted pregnancy
- B. Children are more prone to upper respiratory infections if exposed to smoke at home
- C. Cigarette smoking increases the risk for peptic ulcers and emphysema
- D. A diaphragm and condom provide effective contraception when used together
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide the client in this situation is that using both a diaphragm and a condom together provides effective contraception and also protects against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). While oral contraceptives can help prevent unwanted pregnancies, using a barrier method like a diaphragm and a condom is crucial in this scenario where the client is engaging in a new sexual relationship. Choice B is important information but is not the top priority in this context. Choice C, although relevant, does not address the immediate concern of contraception and STD prevention. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
4. A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
- B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
- C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
- D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instill the first dose of nystatin vaginally per applicator. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, which are characterized by 'cottage cheese' discharge. Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may help with hygiene but does not address the underlying infection. Performing a glucose measurement is not relevant to the diagnosis of a vaginal infection. Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this scenario as the symptoms described are indicative of a yeast infection.
5. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing's sarcoma following examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
- A. Take analgesics regularly to reduce the pain
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
- C. Avoid weight-bearing until the injury heals
- D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is an aggressive cancer, and prompt treatment is crucial for improving prognosis. Option A is incorrect because while pain management is important, addressing the underlying cause (sarcoma) is the priority. Option B is not as critical as seeking treatment for the sarcoma itself. Option C is not the most important instruction as the primary concern is addressing the cancer diagnosis.
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