HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?
- A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
- B. Increased serum ammonia levels
- C. Decreased white blood cell count
- D. Soft, formed stool twice a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.
2. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?
- A. Presence of viral symptoms
- B. Engages in high-risk behaviors
- C. Willingness to comply with complex drug schedules
- D. History of opportunistic infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.
3. The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.8 mL
- C. 1.25 mL
- D. 2.0 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL × 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.
4. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.
5. The following are delays associated with maternal mortality EXCEPT:
- A. Delay in recognizing danger signs
- B. Delay in arrival at a health facility
- C. Delay in initiating treatment
- D. Excessive blood loss
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Excessive blood loss is not a delay associated with maternal mortality but rather a direct complication. Delays in recognizing danger signs, arriving at a health facility, and initiating treatment are factors that can contribute to maternal mortality by impeding timely access to necessary care.