Nursing Elites

1. When administering an intramuscular injection containing 3 ml of a painful medication, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instill the medication quickly
• B. Insert the needle slowly
• C. Select a large, deep muscle mass
• D. Use a short, small gauge needle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Select a large, deep muscle mass. When administering an intramuscular injection with a painful medication volume of 3 ml, selecting a large and deep muscle mass is crucial. This intervention reduces discomfort for the patient and ensures proper absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because instilling the medication quickly can increase discomfort. Choice B is incorrect as inserting the needle slowly may prolong the discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as using a short, small gauge needle may not be suitable for delivering 3 ml of medication effectively into the muscle.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with jaundice. Which serum laboratory value is likely to be elevated for this client?

• A. Amylase
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood urea nitrogen
• D. Bilirubin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilirubin is a key serum laboratory value that is likely to be elevated in clients with jaundice. Jaundice is characterized by a yellowish discoloration of the skin and eyes due to an excess of bilirubin, a breakdown product of hemoglobin. Elevated amylase levels are associated with pancreatic conditions, not specifically jaundice. Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen are markers of kidney function and are not directly related to jaundice.

3. An adult male is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the emergency department because he is in the manic disorder. He has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has not bathed in a week because he has been 'trying to start a new business' and is 'too busy to eat.' He is alert and oriented to time, place and person, but not situation. Which nursing diagnosis has the greatest priority?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Disturbed sleep pattern
• C. Disturbed thought processes
• D. Imbalanced nutrition

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Imbalanced nutrition is the most critical nursing diagnosis to address in this scenario. The patient's significant weight loss and neglect of basic needs, such as eating and personal hygiene, indicate a severe imbalance in nutrition. Addressing this issue is crucial to prevent further health deterioration. Self-care deficit, disturbed sleep pattern, and disturbed thought processes are important but secondary concerns compared to the immediate risk posed by imbalanced nutrition. While self-care deficit and disturbed sleep pattern are valid concerns, the patient's weight loss and neglect of basic needs take precedence. Disturbed thought processes are also significant but addressing the imbalanced nutrition is more urgent in this context.

4. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Heparin prevents future clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
• B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
• C. Let me contact your surgeon and find out if Heparin IV therapy can be administered to you at home
• D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.

5. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
• B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
• C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
• D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.

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