HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?
- A. A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B.
- B. A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus
- C. A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella
- D. A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with lupus erythematosus can be safely transferred to the antepartal unit as this condition does not pose a significant risk to other patients or staff. Choices A, C, and D should not be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit due to the potential risks they may pose to pregnant women and their unborn babies. Chronic hepatitis B, rubella, and herpes lesions of the vulva can be contagious and harmful in the perinatal setting.
2. A client who has had three spontaneous abortions is requesting information about possible causes. The nurse's response should be based on which information?
- A. Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
- B. Incompetent cervix can cause spontaneous abortions
- C. An infection can cause spontaneous abortions
- D. Nutritional deficiencies are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions. Spontaneous abortions, also known as miscarriages, often occur due to chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. These abnormalities are a common cause of early pregnancy loss. Choice B is incorrect because an incompetent cervix typically leads to late miscarriages, not early spontaneous abortions. Choice C is incorrect as while infections can be a cause of spontaneous abortions, they are not the most common cause. Choice D is incorrect as nutritional deficiencies are not the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions.
3. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about dietary choices for celiac disease. Which of the following menu choices selected by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Hamburger on a wheat bun
- B. Baked chicken and potato chips
- C. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast
- D. Beef and barley soup with crackers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because baked chicken and potato chips are gluten-free options suitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice A, a hamburger on a wheat bun, contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Choice C, a bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast, also contains gluten. Choice D, beef and barley soup with crackers, includes gluten from the barley and crackers, making it unsuitable for someone with celiac disease.
4. The nurse is evaluating the laboratory reports of a client with hypothyroidism. The nurse would expect which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Increased TSH
- B. Increased thyroxine (T4)
- C. Decreased TSH
- D. Decreased T3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased TSH. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to low levels of thyroid hormones. As a compensatory mechanism, the pituitary gland releases more thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to try to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Therefore, increased TSH levels are expected in hypothyroidism. Choice B is incorrect because in hypothyroidism, thyroxine (T4) levels are usually decreased, not increased. Choice C is incorrect as hypothyroidism is characterized by increased TSH levels, not decreased. Choice D is also incorrect because in hypothyroidism, T3 levels may be decreased, but TSH is a more sensitive indicator for diagnosis.
5. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
- B. Colostrum can be expressed.
- C. Breasts become tender.
- D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.