HESI RN TEST BANK

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

A client who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) reports to the nurse of having a loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth. What action should the nurse implement?

    A. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of ciprofloxacin.

    B. Instruct the client to take ciprofloxacin with food.

    C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.

    D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on ciprofloxacin reports loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms. These symptoms could indicate a need for a change in medication or additional treatment, which the healthcare provider would need to assess. Instructing the client to take ciprofloxacin with food (choice B) may help with gastrointestinal upset but will not address the reported symptoms. Reassuring the client (choice A) is important for providing emotional support but does not address the need for further evaluation. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice D) is generally beneficial but may not directly address the specific side effects reported.

The nurse is preparing a client for discharge who has a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) self-administration. What information is most important for the nurse to provide the client about this medication?

  • A. Self-administration techniques for subcutaneous injection
  • B. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K
  • C. Signs of bleeding to report to the healthcare provider
  • D. Proper disposal of used syringes

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Teaching the client about self-administration techniques for subcutaneous injection is crucial for safe and effective use of enoxaparin. Option A is the correct answer as it directly addresses the client's need to know how to properly administer the medication. Options B, C, and D are important aspects of care but are not the most critical information needed for the client's self-administration of enoxaparin.

A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?

  • A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
  • B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
  • C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
  • D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.

A client who had a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis describes this client's current health status?

  • A. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility
  • B. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure
  • C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move self in bed
  • D. Impaired physical mobility related to the left side paralysis

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for this client is 'Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.' The client's Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip is a clear indication of impaired skin integrity resulting from altered circulation and pressure due to immobility. Choice A is incorrect because the client already has a pressure ulcer, indicating an actual impairment rather than a risk. Choice C is incorrect as ineffective tissue perfusion is not the primary issue in this case. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses solely on the paralysis and not the actual skin integrity issue.

The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

  • A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
  • B. Provide frequent mouth care
  • C. Encourage small, frequent meals
  • D. Offer clear liquids

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics help prevent or reduce nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Providing frequent mouth care (choice B) is important for managing oral mucositis but not specifically for nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (choice C) and offering clear liquids (choice D) are beneficial strategies for managing gastrointestinal side effects but may not be as effective in controlling nausea as administering antiemetics.

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