Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
• B. Administer a glucagon injection
• C. Provide a snack with protein
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. This will help raise the blood glucose levels quickly. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia as protein takes longer to raise blood glucose levels. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be beneficial after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to raise the blood glucose levels promptly.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Administer pain medication
• D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This helps prevent infection and keeps the wound moist, which is crucial in promoting healing and preventing further complications. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after addressing the wound. Administering pain medication (Option C) may be necessary but is not the first action to take in this emergency situation. Covering the wound with an abdominal binder (Option D) is not appropriate and may cause further harm by applying pressure to the protruding bowel.

3. Which assessment finding should indicate to the nurse that a client with arterial hypertension is experiencing a cardiac complication?

• A. Complaints of an occipital headache
• B. A palpable dorsal pedis pulse bilaterally
• C. Complaints of shortness of breath on exertion
• D. A blood pressure of 160/90

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, complaints of shortness of breath on exertion. This symptom is indicative of heart failure, a common cardiac complication of arterial hypertension. Shortness of breath on exertion is often due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because complaints of an occipital headache, a palpable dorsal pedis pulse bilaterally, and a blood pressure of 160/90 do not specifically indicate a cardiac complication in a client with arterial hypertension.

4. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit?

• A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
• B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago
• C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
• D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from the dehydration caused by severe diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring a stable client who is learning self-care, such as self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, provides the needed telemetry-monitored bed without compromising the client's care. Choice B should not be transferred as the client is ambulatory following surgery and does not require telemetry monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred as the client is wearing a sling immobilizer following pacemaker insertion, which requires close monitoring. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to severe dehydration, necessitating telemetry monitoring for immediate intervention.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client has a productive cough with pink, frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Perform chest physiotherapy
• C. Elevate the head of the bed
• D. Obtain a sputum specimen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with heart failure presenting with worsening dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum (indicating pulmonary edema), the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea by increasing the oxygen supply to the lungs. Performing chest physiotherapy, elevating the head of the bed, or obtaining a sputum specimen are not the initial actions indicated in this situation and may delay addressing the client's immediate need for improved oxygenation.

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