Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
• B. Administer a glucagon injection
• C. Provide a snack with protein
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. This will help raise the blood glucose levels quickly. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia as protein takes longer to raise blood glucose levels. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be beneficial after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to raise the blood glucose levels promptly.

2. Assessment findings of a 3-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate at 42 breaths/min. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse implement?

• A. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel
• B. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket
• C. Record the findings on the flow sheet
• D. Check the vital signs in 15 minutes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to record the findings on the flow sheet. These assessment findings are within normal limits for a 3-hour-old newborn. The axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate of 42 breaths/min are all expected in a newborn. No immediate intervention is needed, so the nurse should document these normal findings for future reference. Placing a pulse oximeter on the heel or swaddling the infant in a warm blanket is not indicated as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the vital signs in 15 minutes is unnecessary since the current findings are normal.

3. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

• A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
• B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
• C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
• D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating a meeting for the nurses to identify ways of working together is the best action for the nurse manager. This approach promotes open communication, collaboration, and allows both nurses to express their concerns and perspectives. Option A may not address the underlying issues between the nurses and involving a mental health consultant may not be necessary at this stage. Option B, while listening is important, may not fully resolve the conflict without a structured plan. Option C focuses solely on the senior nurse without involving the new graduate in resolving the situation.

4. When performing an admission assessment of a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?

• A. When did your symptoms first begin?
• B. Can you describe the pain and how it feels?
• C. Do you have any changes in vision?
• D. Have you experienced any seizures?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When assessing a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, asking about seizures is crucial because they can be a common symptom associated with brain tumors. Seizures in this context could provide valuable information regarding the progression and impact of the brain tumor on the client's neurological status. Choices A, B, and C are important questions in a general assessment, but when specifically focusing on a client with a brain tumor, inquiring about seizures takes priority due to its direct relevance to the condition.

5. A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
• B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
• C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
• D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instill the first dose of nystatin vaginally per applicator. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, which are characterized by 'cottage cheese' discharge. Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may help with hygiene but does not address the underlying infection. Performing a glucose measurement is not relevant to the diagnosis of a vaginal infection. Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this scenario as the symptoms described are indicative of a yeast infection.

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