HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client presents to the clinic with concerns about her left breast. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report?
- A. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses.
- B. A slight asymmetry of the breasts.
- C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin.
- D. Bloody discharge from the nipple.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin is concerning for malignancy, such as breast cancer, and should be reported immediately for further evaluation. This finding is more suspicious compared to multiple firm, round, freely movable masses (choice A), which could be benign breast lumps. A slight asymmetry of the breasts (choice B) is a common finding and not as alarming as a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin. Bloody discharge from the nipple (choice D) can be suggestive of other conditions like intraductal papilloma but is not as urgent as the finding described in choice C.
2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder has been referred to a local boarding home for consideration for placement. The social worker telephoned the hospital unit for information about the client's mental status and adjustment. The appropriate response of the nurse should be which of these statements?
- A. I am sorry. Referral information can only be provided by the client's health care providers.
- B. I can never give any information out by telephone. How do I know who you are?
- C. Since this is a referral, I can give you this information.
- D. I need to get the client's written consent before I release any information to you.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I need to get the client's written consent before I release any information to you." In this scenario, the nurse must obtain the client's written consent before disclosing any information to the social worker. This process ensures compliance with privacy laws like HIPAA, which are designed to protect client confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the need for consent. Choice B is incorrect as it is unprofessional and does not focus on obtaining consent. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests information can be shared without consent, which goes against privacy laws.
3. While providing home care to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is asked how long diuretics must be taken. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. As you urinate more, you will need less medication to control fluid.
- B. You will have to take this medication for about a year.
- C. The medication must be continued so the fluid problem is controlled.
- D. Please talk to your health care provider about medications and treatments.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diuretics must be continued as long as the fluid problem persists to prevent heart failure symptoms.
4. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Administer calcium gluconate.
- D. Restrict the client's potassium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes is found unconscious with a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously.
- B. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
- C. Provide oral glucose gel.
- D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously. In unconscious clients with hypoglycemia, IV dextrose rapidly raises the blood glucose level. Glucagon would be a slower option and is typically used if IV access is unavailable. Oral glucose gel is not appropriate for an unconscious client as it requires swallowing and may cause aspiration. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes delays immediate treatment and could lead to further deterioration.
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