Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?

• A. Monitor for a persistent cough.
• B. Monitor for bradycardia and dizziness.
• C. Report any signs of swelling or difficulty breathing.
• D. Monitor for headache and blurred vision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with a common side effect of a persistent dry cough. This cough can be bothersome to the client and should be reported to their healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, dizziness, swelling, difficulty breathing, headache, and blurred vision are not typically associated with lisinopril use.

2. While changing a client's chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a cracking sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing at the chest tube site.
• B. Administer an oral antihistamine per PRN order.
• C. Assess the client for allergies to topical cleaning agents.
• D. Measure the area of crackling and swelling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the area of crackling and swelling is essential in monitoring the progression of subcutaneous emphysema, which can result from air leaking into the tissues around the chest tube insertion site. This technique helps evaluate the extent of the issue and guides further interventions. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) might exacerbate the condition by trapping more air. Administering an oral antihistamine (choice B) is not indicated for subcutaneous emphysema. Assessing for allergies to topical cleaning agents (choice C) is not the priority in this situation compared to evaluating and managing the subcutaneous emphysema.

3. A client with pancreatitis reports severe pain after eating fatty foods. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to eat small, low-fat meals.
• B. Administer antispasmodic medication as prescribed.
• C. Instruct the client to avoid eating until the pain subsides.
• D. Increase the client’s intake of high-protein foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pancreatitis, pain after consuming fatty foods is common due to increased pancreatic stimulation. Administering antispasmodics is the appropriate intervention as it can help reduce the pain by decreasing pancreatic enzyme secretion. Encouraging the client to eat small, low-fat meals (Choice A) is beneficial in managing pancreatitis symptoms but does not directly address the acute pain. Instructing the client to avoid eating until the pain subsides (Choice C) may lead to nutritional deficiencies and is not the best approach. Increasing high-protein foods intake (Choice D) is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the pancreas.

4. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
• B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.

5. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
• B. Place the client in a supine position.
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
• D. Review the client's recent medication history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.

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