Nursing Elites

1. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation of 96%.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 89%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Decreased heart rate of 70 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates hypoxemia, which is below the normal range (usually 95-100%). This finding requires immediate intervention as it signifies inadequate oxygenation. Options A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Option A indicates a good oxygen saturation level, option C denotes a normal respiratory rate, and option D suggests a normal heart rate. Therefore, these options do not require immediate intervention compared to the critically low oxygen saturation level of 89% in option B.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. The client reports feeling short of breath and has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Elevate the head of the bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with shortness of breath. This position helps in maximizing lung expansion and aiding ventilation-perfusion matching in patients with COPD. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary but should come after optimizing the client's positioning. Notifying the healthcare provider and administering a bronchodilator are not the initial interventions for addressing shortness of breath in a client with COPD.

3. On admission to the Emergency Department, a female client who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder 3 years ago reports that this morning, she took a handful of medications and left a suicide note for her family. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Client's current mood and affect
• B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder
• C. History of previous suicide attempts
• D. Details of the medications ingested

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Determining the specific medications ingested is the priority for guiding immediate treatment in the Emergency Department. Knowing when the client last took medications and her current mood are also important, but the ingested medications are the most urgent information needed. The client's current mood and affect are crucial for assessing her immediate state, but the priority is to identify the substances she ingested to provide appropriate interventions. While understanding the history of previous suicide attempts is relevant for assessing the client's risk, the immediate focus should be on the medications taken during this specific incident.

4. A client is admitted for first and second-degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

• A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
• B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
• C. Initiate intravenous therapy
• D. Administer pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea or stridor is crucial as these are signs of airway compromise, which is a priority concern in burns involving the face. Burns on the face can lead to airway swelling or compromise due to airway proximity, making respiratory assessment the top priority. Covering the areas with dry sterile dressings, initiating intravenous therapy, and administering pain medication are important interventions but assessing for airway issues takes precedence in this situation.

5. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
• B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
• D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.

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