A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

A. Increased oxygen saturation of 96%.

B. Oxygen saturation of 89%.

C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.

D. Decreased heart rate of 70 beats per minute.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates hypoxemia, which is below the normal range (usually 95-100%). This finding requires immediate intervention as it signifies inadequate oxygenation. Options A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Option A indicates a good oxygen saturation level, option C denotes a normal respiratory rate, and option D suggests a normal heart rate. Therefore, these options do not require immediate intervention compared to the critically low oxygen saturation level of 89% in option B.

Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?

• A. A young adult with a history of Down syndrome
• B. A teenager who reads at a 4th-grade level
• C. An elderly client with numerous arthritic nodules on the hands
• D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness episodes

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness episodes is not a suitable candidate for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) due to their inability to effectively manage the system. In the context of terminal cancer, it is crucial for the patient to be able to utilize the PCA system appropriately to manage pain effectively. Preschoolers may not have the cognitive ability or understanding to operate a PCA pump compared to the other clients. Choices A, B, and C present clients with conditions that do not inherently impede their ability to use a PCA pump effectively.

A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted for total thyroidectomy. What is the nurse's priority post-operative intervention?

• A. Monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia.
• B. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
• C. Administer oral calcium supplements.
• D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia. After a total thyroidectomy, there is a risk of accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. This complication can manifest within the first 24-48 hours post-op. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to prevent serious complications such as tetany or seizures. While monitoring for respiratory distress is important, it is not the priority in this case. Administering oral calcium supplements should only be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription and after assessing the client's calcium levels. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for respiratory function but is not the priority intervention for a client at risk for hypocalcemia post-thyroidectomy.

A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. What is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Platelet count

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin as an anticoagulant. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of heparin, but it is not the primary laboratory value to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

The client has been diagnosed with hypertension, and the nurse is providing education on dietary changes. Which food should the client be advised to avoid?

• A. Bananas
• B. Processed meats
• C. Low-fat yogurt
• D. Whole grains

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Processed meats should be avoided by clients with hypertension as they are high in sodium, which can contribute to elevated blood pressure. It is essential to limit the intake of high-sodium foods to help manage hypertension. Bananas, low-fat yogurt, and whole grains are generally beneficial for heart health due to their nutrient content and should not be avoided in a heart-healthy diet.