Nursing Elites

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has just been prescribed methotrexate. What teaching should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Report any signs of infection, such as a sore throat.
• C. Take folic acid supplements to prevent anemia.
• D. Use sunscreen to prevent photosensitivity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sunscreen to prevent photosensitivity.' Methotrexate increases photosensitivity, so clients should be advised to use sunscreen to protect their skin from sun exposure. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice B may be important but is not specific to methotrexate therapy. Choice C is also important, but the primary reason for folic acid supplementation with methotrexate is to reduce the risk of certain side effects like anemia rather than preventing anemia itself.

2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

3. A 30-year-old male client reports difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery. What intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?

• A. Suggest taking a mild sedative before bed.
• B. Encourage physical activity before bedtime.
• C. Advise listening to calming music before bed.
• D. Recommend reading a book before bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to suggest to a 30-year-old male client experiencing difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery is to recommend taking a mild sedative before bed. A mild sedative can help manage anxiety and improve sleep in such situations. Encouraging physical activity before bedtime, advising to listen to calming music, or recommending reading a book may not directly address the client's anxiety and may not be as effective in promoting sleep in this scenario.

4. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
• D. Place the client in a lateral position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.

5. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

• A. Report orange-colored urine as a sign of kidney dysfunction.
• B. Expect red-orange discoloration of urine as a harmless side effect.
• C. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
• D. Call the healthcare provider if vision changes occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

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