Nursing Elites

1. A client is recovering after a nephrostomy tube was placed 6 hours ago. The nurse notes drainage in the tube has decreased from 40 mL/hr to 12 mL over the last hour. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Document the finding in the client’s record.
• B. Evaluate the tube as working in the hand-off report.
• C. Clamp the tube in preparation for removing it.
• D. Assess the client’s abdomen and vital signs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client’s abdomen and vital signs. The nephrostomy tube should have a consistent amount of drainage, and a decrease may indicate obstruction. Before notifying the provider, the nurse must assess the client for pain, distention, and changes in vital signs. This assessment is crucial to gather essential information to report accurately. Documenting the finding without further assessment may delay necessary intervention. Evaluating the tube as working in the hand-off report or clamping the tube prematurely are not appropriate actions and could lead to complications if there is an obstruction.

2. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administer 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
• B. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
• C. Arrange a consultation with the dietitian.
• D. Educate about the side effects of diuretics.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient who is being treated for a urinary tract infection. The nurse learns that the patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes a sulfonylurea oral antidiabetic drug. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?

• A. Headaches
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Superinfection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient takes oral antidiabetic agents (sulfonylurea) along with sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, it can lead to an increased hypoglycemic effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient closely for hypoglycemia. Headaches, hypertension, and superinfection are not typically associated with the interaction between sulfonamides and sulfonylureas. Examples of antidiabetic sulfonylurea medications include glipizide, glimepiride, glyburide, tolazamide, and tolbutamide.

4. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the airway.
• B. Reposition the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened.
• C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows.
• D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to clear any obstructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.

5. A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:

• A. 85%
• B. 89%
• C. 95%
• D. 100%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.

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