HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Reposition the nasal cannula
- B. Lower the oxygen rate
- C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
- D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client with COPD receiving increased oxygen is experiencing oxygen toxicity, leading to lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate is the priority action to prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and monitoring oxygen saturation are all important interventions, but the immediate concern is to address the oxygen toxicity by lowering the oxygen rate.
2. The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?
- A. A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B.
- B. A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus
- C. A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella
- D. A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with lupus erythematosus can be safely transferred to the antepartal unit as this condition does not pose a significant risk to other patients or staff. Choices A, C, and D should not be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit due to the potential risks they may pose to pregnant women and their unborn babies. Chronic hepatitis B, rubella, and herpes lesions of the vulva can be contagious and harmful in the perinatal setting.
3. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's statements?
- A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram
- B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure
- C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after the menstrual period ends
- D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to perform breast self-examination (BSE) 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is important because breasts are least tender during this phase of the menstrual cycle, allowing for a more effective examination. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, the immediate concern is the timing of BSE. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE practice just needs a slight adjustment in timing, not an in-depth review. Choice D is incorrect as the client should perform BSE when her breasts are least tender for optimal detection of any abnormalities.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client in the late stage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
- A. Impaired physical mobility
- B. Ineffective breathing pattern
- C. Impaired skin integrity
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ineffective breathing pattern is the highest priority for a client in the late stage of ALS due to the significant risk of respiratory complications. As ALS progresses, the client may experience respiratory muscle weakness, leading to ineffective breathing patterns and potential respiratory failure. Addressing breathing difficulties promptly is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. While impaired physical mobility, impaired skin integrity, and risk for infection are also important concerns in ALS care, they are secondary to addressing the client's breathing difficulties, which take precedence to maintain physiological stability and prevent life-threatening consequences.
5. The mother of a 6-year-old anemic boy is taught by the nurse to give iron supplements. Which statement indicates that the mother understands the proper administration of iron?
- A. The iron tablets will be absorbed between meals, on an empty stomach
- B. I should give the iron tablets with his milk and cereal each morning
- C. Iron preparations can be taken with antibiotics if he develops an infection
- D. The iron tablets may cause him to sunburn more easily so he should wear sunscreen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach, which maximizes their effectiveness. Giving iron tablets with milk or calcium-rich foods, as mentioned in choice B, should be avoided as they can decrease iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because iron preparations should not be taken with antibiotics due to potential interactions. Choice D is also incorrect as iron tablets do not cause an increased risk of sunburn, so sunscreen is not necessary specifically due to iron supplementation.
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