HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Reposition the nasal cannula
- B. Lower the oxygen rate
- C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
- D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client with COPD receiving increased oxygen is experiencing oxygen toxicity, leading to lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate is the priority action to prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and monitoring oxygen saturation are all important interventions, but the immediate concern is to address the oxygen toxicity by lowering the oxygen rate.
2. The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Monitor daily weights
- B. Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload
- C. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day
- D. Increase protein intake to promote healing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide a client with chronic kidney disease is to report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day. This is crucial because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common issue in kidney disease. Monitoring daily weights, as in option A, is important but not as critical as reporting sudden weight gain. Option B, limiting fluid intake, is a general recommendation for kidney disease but not the most important aspect in this scenario. Option D, increasing protein intake, is not appropriate as excessive protein intake can be harmful for clients with kidney disease.
3. A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?
- A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
- B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
- C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
- D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale of 3 indicates severe neurological impairment, suggesting a deep coma or even impending death. This client's condition is critical, and he has a very poor prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because a GCS of 3 does not directly indicate increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as a GCS of 3 signifies a grave neurological status. Choice C is incorrect as a GCS of 3 represents a state of unconsciousness rather than being conscious but disoriented.
4. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?
- A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
- B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
- C. Blurring of vision
- D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.
5. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?
- A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
- B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
- C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
- D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.
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