Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the nasal cannula
• B. Lower the oxygen rate
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
• D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with COPD receiving increased oxygen is experiencing oxygen toxicity, leading to lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate is the priority action to prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and monitoring oxygen saturation are all important interventions, but the immediate concern is to address the oxygen toxicity by lowering the oxygen rate.

2. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
• B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
• C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
• D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

3. A client who is HIV positive and taking lamivudine (Epivir) calls the clinic to report a cough and fever. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation
• B. Advise the client to increase fluid intake
• C. Advise the client to take an over-the-counter cough suppressant
• D. Advise the client to rest and call if the fever persists

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in this situation is to advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation. Given the client's HIV-positive status and medication, it is crucial to assess the cough and fever promptly to identify the underlying cause. Increasing fluid intake (choice B) may be beneficial but does not address the need for evaluation. Taking an over-the-counter cough suppressant (choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the cause of the symptoms. Advising the client to rest and call if the fever persists (choice D) delays the necessary evaluation and treatment.

4. A 24-year-old female client who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is taking ibuprofen (Motrin) for pain relief. Which information should the nurse provide the client about taking this medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Take the medication with an antacid
• C. Report any changes in stool color to your healthcare provider
• D. Avoid taking aspirin while using this medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any changes in stool color to the healthcare provider. This is important because changes in stool color can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen. Choice A is incorrect because while taking ibuprofen with meals can help reduce stomach upset, it is not the most crucial information to provide. Choice B is incorrect as taking ibuprofen with an antacid is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is also incorrect because while ibuprofen and aspirin are both NSAIDs, they can be taken together under certain circumstances, but it's important to be cautious and follow healthcare provider recommendations.

5. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity is a sign of dehydration in children. In the scenario provided, the child is experiencing increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting, indicating fluid loss and potential dehydration. Occult blood in the stool may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a direct indicator of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not specific to dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with increased bowel motility, not necessarily dehydration.

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