HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A 9-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot is being discharged following a cardiac catheterization. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the parents?
- A. Do not allow the child to return to school for at least one month
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site
- C. Monitor the child's temperature and report any elevation
- D. Observe for any changes in the child's color or energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site. Drainage at the site can be a sign of infection, which needs prompt evaluation and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial as identifying and reporting any drainage, which is more directly related to potential complications post-cardiac catheterization.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected diabetes insipidus. Which of the following clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis?
- A. Polyuria and polydipsia
- B. Hypertension and bradycardia
- C. Weight gain and edema
- D. Oliguria and thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst) are classic clinical manifestations of diabetes insipidus. In this condition, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine effectively, resulting in increased urine output (polyuria) and consequent thirst (polydipsia). Hypertension and bradycardia (Choice B) are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Weight gain and edema (Choice C) are more indicative of conditions such as heart failure or nephrotic syndrome. Oliguria (decreased urine output) and thirst (Choice D) are contradictory symptoms to what is seen in diabetes insipidus.
3. Laboratory findings indicate that a client's serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- B. Prepare to administer a glucose-insulin-potassium replacement.
- C. Change the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement.
- D. Instruct the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. The immediate action the nurse should take is to inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement. Option B, preparing to administer glucose-insulin-potassium replacement, is not the first-line intervention; it may be considered in specific situations but requires a healthcare provider's prescription. Option C, changing the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement, is not the priority when managing critically low potassium levels. Option D, instructing the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods, is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate intervention is needed to address the dangerously low potassium level.
4. Prior to administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should assess the client for which of the following contraindications to administering the drug?
- A. Age over 60 years.
- B. History of cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. History of heart failure.
- D. Cigarette smoking.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cerebral hemorrhage. A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to t-PA administration because of the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Age over 60 years is not a contraindication for t-PA administration. While older age may pose some risks, it is not an absolute contraindication. History of heart failure is not a direct contraindication to t-PA administration. Cigarette smoking, while a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a specific contraindication for t-PA administration.
5. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse a client's readiness for pulmonary function tests?
- A. Expresses an understanding of the procedure.
- B. NPO for 6 hrs.
- C. No known drug allergies.
- D. Intravenous access intact.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expresses an understanding of the procedure.' This choice indicates that the client is mentally prepared for the pulmonary function tests, as understanding the procedure shows readiness and cooperation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'NPO for 6 hrs,' pertains to fasting status and is not directly related to readiness for the test. Choice C, 'No known drug allergies,' is important information but does not specifically indicate readiness for pulmonary function tests. Choice D, 'Intravenous access intact,' is related to vascular access and not a direct indicator of readiness for the pulmonary function tests.