a client receiving amlodipine norvasc a calcium channel blocker develops 1 pitting edema around the ankles it is most important for the nurse to obtai
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D. Breath sounds.' When a client receiving amlodipine develops edema, it is crucial to assess for potential heart failure, a side effect of the medication. Checking breath sounds helps in identifying any signs of pulmonary edema, a severe complication of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context. Bladder distention could be associated with urinary issues, serum albumin level with malnutrition or liver disease, and abdominal girth with gastrointestinal problems, none of which directly relate to the potential heart failure induced by amlodipine.

2. A client who is 32-weeks pregnant is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Refraining from sexual intercourse helps prevent complications with partial placenta previa.

3. In the newborn nursery, the nurse admits a baby from labor and delivery who is suspected of having a congenital heart disease. Which finding helps to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Centralized cyanosis and tachycardia are classic signs of congenital heart disease. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis in the hands and feet is not specific to congenital heart disease. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs provided are not specific indicators of congenital heart disease. Choice D is unrelated to the typical signs of congenital heart disease.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. This will help raise the blood glucose levels quickly. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia as protein takes longer to raise blood glucose levels. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be beneficial after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to raise the blood glucose levels promptly.

5. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.

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