HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
2. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?
- A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
- B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
- C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
- D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.
3. A 9-year-old received a short arm cast for a right radius. To relieve itching under the child's cast, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents?
- A. Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast
- B. Twist the cast back and forth
- C. Shake powder into the cast
- D. Push a pencil under the cast edge
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Blow cool air from a hairdryer under the cast.' Blowing cool air can help relieve itching without damaging the cast or causing injury. Choice B, twisting the cast back and forth, can lead to discomfort, skin irritation, or even injury. Choice C, shaking powder into the cast, can create a mess, increase the risk of skin issues, and interfere with proper healing. Choice D, pushing a pencil under the cast edge, is dangerous as it can cause injury to the child's skin or the underlying tissues. Therefore, the safest and most effective option to relieve itching under the cast is to blow cool air from a hair dryer.
4. A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureter lithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?
- A. Ineffective airway clearance
- B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
- C. Fluid volume excess
- D. Activity intolerance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ineffective airway clearance.' Following a ureter lithotomy via a flank incision, the highest priority nursing problem is ensuring the client's airway remains clear. This is crucial for effective breathing and oxygenation. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important to address but are of lower priority compared to maintaining a clear airway postoperatively.
5. A client who is bleeding after a vaginal delivery receives a prescription for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. The medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml. What is the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer to this client?
- A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
- B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
- C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
- D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The maximum dosage the nurse should administer is 2 mg. This is calculated based on the prescription of 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. Since the medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml, the nurse should administer 2 ml (0.2 mg/ml x 10 ml) for each dose, not exceeding 5 doses. Therefore, the nurse should limit the client's oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml, to avoid exceeding the maximum dosage of 2 mg.
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