the nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to eval
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low serum potassium level increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with low potassium levels because potassium is crucial for proper heart function. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate an increased risk of digoxin toxicity.

4. A client who has had three spontaneous abortions is requesting information about possible causes. The nurse's response should be based on which information?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions. Spontaneous abortions, also known as miscarriages, often occur due to chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. These abnormalities are a common cause of early pregnancy loss. Choice B is incorrect because an incompetent cervix typically leads to late miscarriages, not early spontaneous abortions. Choice C is incorrect as while infections can be a cause of spontaneous abortions, they are not the most common cause. Choice D is incorrect as nutritional deficiencies are not the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions.

5. The nurse is triaging clients from a train wreck. A client has multiple open wounds, a blood pressure of 90/56, and a pulse of 112 beats/minute. Which triage tag color should the nurse place on this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red. The client's vital signs indicate critical condition with a high pulse and low blood pressure, suggesting shock. A red tag is used to identify patients who require immediate attention and should be prioritized for treatment. Choice A, Black, is incorrect as it is typically used for deceased or expectant clients. Choice B, Yellow, is used for clients with non-life-threatening injuries who require medical care but can wait. Choice C, Green, is for clients with minor injuries who can wait the longest for treatment. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's condition warrants a red triage tag for immediate attention.

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