Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for metoprolol (Lopressor). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the medication?

• A. Heart rate of 50 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 50 beats per minute is a concerning finding that should be reported before administering metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate, so a heart rate of 50 bpm indicates potential bradycardia, which is a contraindication for administering this medication. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate concerns related to metoprolol administration.

2. When performing an admission assessment of a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?

• A. When did your symptoms first begin?
• B. Can you describe the pain and how it feels?
• C. Do you have any changes in vision?
• D. Have you experienced any seizures?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When assessing a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, asking about seizures is crucial because they can be a common symptom associated with brain tumors. Seizures in this context could provide valuable information regarding the progression and impact of the brain tumor on the client's neurological status. Choices A, B, and C are important questions in a general assessment, but when specifically focusing on a client with a brain tumor, inquiring about seizures takes priority due to its direct relevance to the condition.

3. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Heparin prevents future clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
• B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
• C. Let me contact your surgeon and find out if Heparin IV therapy can be administered to you at home
• D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.

4. The nurse is evaluating the health status of an older client. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Client reports decreased urine output
• B. Client reports loss of appetite
• C. Client reports pain in the lower back
• D. Client reports a persistent cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pain in the lower back is a significant finding in an older client as it can indicate underlying issues such as kidney problems, spinal issues, or even aortic aneurysm. These conditions can be serious and require prompt medical attention. Decreased urine output (choice A) could indicate dehydration or kidney issues but is not as urgent as lower back pain. Loss of appetite (choice B) may be concerning but is not as critical as the potential life-threatening conditions associated with lower back pain. A persistent cough (choice D) is important to assess but is generally not as urgent as the potential serious implications of lower back pain in an older client.

5. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the child in a mist tent
• B. Obtain a sputum culture
• C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
• D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.

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