HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for metoprolol (Lopressor). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the medication?
- A. Heart rate of 50 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
- D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 50 beats per minute is a concerning finding that should be reported before administering metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate, so a heart rate of 50 bpm indicates potential bradycardia, which is a contraindication for administering this medication. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate concerns related to metoprolol administration.
2. A client who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) reports to the nurse of having a loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of ciprofloxacin.
- B. Instruct the client to take ciprofloxacin with food.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
- D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on ciprofloxacin reports loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms. These symptoms could indicate a need for a change in medication or additional treatment, which the healthcare provider would need to assess. Instructing the client to take ciprofloxacin with food (choice B) may help with gastrointestinal upset but will not address the reported symptoms. Reassuring the client (choice A) is important for providing emotional support but does not address the need for further evaluation. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice D) is generally beneficial but may not directly address the specific side effects reported.
3. When evaluating the preoperative teaching of a client scheduled for arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament repair, which statement by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?
- A. I will use crutches to keep my weight off my knee
- B. I will stay home until a wheelchair is delivered
- C. I can use the trapeze bar and side rails on the bed to help me turn regularly
- D. I can put my full weight on my foot starting the day after surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using crutches indicates an understanding of weight-bearing restrictions post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for a wheelchair is not related to postoperative mobility instructions. Choice C is incorrect as turning in bed using the trapeze bar and side rails does not address weight-bearing restrictions. Choice D is incorrect because putting full weight on the foot immediately after surgery contradicts the need to keep weight off the knee.
4. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter in a female client. Which action should the nurse take to maintain sterile technique?
- A. Apply sterile gloves before inserting the catheter
- B. Use sterile gloves to insert the catheter
- C. Clean the urinary meatus with an antiseptic solution
- D. Place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using sterile gloves to insert the catheter is crucial to maintaining sterile technique. Sterile gloves help prevent the introduction of microorganisms during the insertion process. Applying sterile gloves before cleansing the perineal area (Choice A) is important but not specific to maintaining sterility during catheter insertion. Cleaning the urinary meatus with an antiseptic solution (Choice C) is a step in the catheterization process but does not solely ensure sterile technique. Placing the drainage bag above the level of the bladder (Choice D) is incorrect; the bag should be placed below the level of the bladder to facilitate urine drainage.
5. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. It dissolves blood clots
- B. It prevents the blood from clotting
- C. It thins the blood
- D. It decreases the risk of infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.
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