HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles in a client with COPD indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests that the patient is struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not critically low, while a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing indicated by the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to underlying conditions like pneumonia but do not require immediate intervention as the use of accessory muscles does.
2. A client who has just returned from surgery is shivering uncontrollably. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Offer the client a warm blanket
- B. Apply warm blankets and monitor the client's temperature
- C. Place a warm blanket in the client's bed before transferring the client from the stretcher
- D. Administer a prescribed muscle relaxant
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying warm blankets and monitoring the client's temperature is the best action to manage postoperative shivering. Shivering after surgery can be a common response due to factors like exposure to cold, pain, or anesthesia effects. Providing warmth through blankets can help regulate the client's body temperature and alleviate shivering. Monitoring the client's temperature is essential to ensure it returns to a normal range. Option A is not as comprehensive as option B, which includes both providing warmth and monitoring the client. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on preparing the bed rather than addressing the client's immediate need for warmth. Option D is not appropriate without further assessment or prescription for a muscle relaxant to address shivering.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles is most concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates increased work of breathing, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is acceptable in a client with COPD. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in clients with COPD due to underlying lung changes but do not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.
4. The mother of a one-month-old boy born at home brings the infant to his first well-baby visit. She mentions that he was born two weeks after his due date and is a 'good, quiet baby' who almost never cries. To assess for hypothyroidism, what question is most important for the nurse to ask the mother?
- A. Has your son had any immunizations yet?
- B. Is your son sleepy and difficult to feed?
- C. Are you breastfeeding or bottle feeding your son?
- D. Were any relatives born with birth defects?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleepiness and difficulty feeding are key signs of congenital hypothyroidism, which requires early diagnosis and treatment. Asking about immunizations (choice A) is important but not directly related to assessing hypothyroidism. The feeding method (choice C) is relevant for overall health but not specific to hypothyroidism. Inquiring about relatives with birth defects (choice D) is not the most crucial question to assess hypothyroidism in this scenario.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Headache
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Elevated liver enzymes
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.
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