Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

2. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

• A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
• B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
• C. Restlessness and anxiety
• D. Diaphoresis and dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• C. Serum glucose of 350 mg/dl
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with COPD exacerbation as it may lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias, which pose a significant risk to the patient's life. Options B, C, and D are not typically associated with immediate life-threatening risks in the context of a COPD exacerbation.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Headache
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing shortness of breath and has a prescription for oxygen therapy. What is the maximum amount of oxygen the nurse should administer without a healthcare provider's order?

• A. 2 liters per minute
• B. 4 liters per minute
• C. 6 liters per minute
• D. 8 liters per minute

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 4 liters per minute. Without a healthcare provider's order, the nurse should administer a maximum of 4 liters per minute of oxygen to prevent carbon dioxide retention in COPD clients. Higher flow rates can lead to oxygen toxicity and worsen the client's condition. Choices A, C, and D exceed the safe limit for oxygen administration without a healthcare provider's order.

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