Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

2. A 65-year-old male client with a history of smoking and high cholesterol is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia, especially given the client's symptoms and history. Chest X-ray (Choice B) may be ordered to evaluate the lungs but would not be the initial test for this client presenting with chest pain and shortness of breath. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for a client with suspected cardiac issues. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) (Choice D) are used to assess lung function and would not be the first test indicated in this scenario.

3. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure that the UAP has positioned the pillows effectively to protect the client.
• B. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows.
• C. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task.
• D. Ask the UAP to use some of the pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the UAP to pad the side rails with soft blankets instead of pillows. Placing pillows along the side rails could lead to suffocation during a seizure and would need to be removed promptly. Instructing the UAP to use soft blankets is safer as they can help prevent injury without posing a risk of suffocation. Ensuring effective placement of the pillows (Choice A) is not appropriate as pillows should not be used in this situation. Assuming responsibility for placing the pillows (Choice C) or propping the client in a side-lying position with pillows (Choice D) are both unsafe actions and could potentially harm the client.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dl

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with CKD as it indicates hyperkalemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, particularly in patients with impaired kidney function. Serum sodium, creatinine, and blood glucose levels, while important, are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia in this context.

5. A client is admitted for type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which breakfast selection by the client indicates effective learning?

• A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, one slice of whole wheat toast with butter and jam.
• B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries, and 6 ounces of coffee.
• C. Banana pancake with maple syrup, sausage links, half grapefruit, and low-fat milk.
• D. Orange juice, yogurt with berries, cold cereal with milk, bran muffin with margarine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries is a suitable choice for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease as it provides a balanced meal that helps manage blood sugar levels and kidney function. Choice A contains high saturated fats and added sugars from bacon, butter, and jam, which are not ideal for this client. Choice C includes high sugar content from maple syrup and pancake, which can negatively impact blood sugar levels. Choice D contains high sugar content from orange juice and cold cereal, which can lead to blood sugar spikes, not suitable for a client with diabetes and CKD.

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