Nursing Elites

1. After receiving lactulose, a client with hepatic encephalopathy has several loose stools. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Send stool specimen to the lab
• B. Measure abdominal girth
• C. Encourage increased fiber in the diet
• D. Monitor mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement after a client with hepatic encephalopathy has loose stools following lactulose administration is to monitor the client's mental status. Lactulose is given to lower serum ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, and loose stools can be an expected side effect of its use. Monitoring mental status is crucial because changes in mental status, such as confusion or altered level of consciousness, are key indicators of hepatic encephalopathy worsening. Sending a stool specimen to the lab would not be the priority in this situation as loose stools are a known effect of lactulose. Measuring abdominal girth is more relevant for conditions like ascites, not loose stools. Encouraging increased fiber in the diet may be beneficial for constipation but is not the immediate action needed when loose stools occur after lactulose administration.

2. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered the blood pressure
• B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness
• C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
• D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When medications with a similar action are administered, an additive effect occurs that is the sum of the effects of each medication. In this case, several medications that all lower blood pressure, when administered together, resulted in hypotension.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen), monitoring serum potassium levels closely is crucial. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia is a potential risk in these clients. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important in assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy, but it is not the laboratory value that poses an immediate risk related to the medication. White blood cell count (choice B) and serum creatinine (choice D) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy and are not the priority laboratory values to monitor in this case.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
• B. Temperature of 100.4°F
• C. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
• D. Urine output of 30 ml/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with septic shock, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute is a critical clinical finding that requires immediate intervention. A rapid heart rate can indicate worsening sepsis and inadequate tissue perfusion. Correcting the underlying cause of the tachycardia and stabilizing the heart rate is crucial in managing septic shock. The other options, while important, do not represent an immediate threat to the patient's condition. A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg may be expected in septic shock, a temperature of 100.4°F is mildly elevated, and a urine output of 30 ml/hour, though decreased, may not be an immediate concern in the context of septic shock.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD experiencing an exacerbation. This indicates increased work of breathing and can be a sign of respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute can be within normal limits. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to airway inflammation but are not as concerning as the use of accessory muscles.

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