after receiving lactulose a client with hepatic encephalopathy has several loose stools what action should the nurse implement
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. After receiving lactulose, a client with hepatic encephalopathy has several loose stools. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement after a client with hepatic encephalopathy has loose stools following lactulose administration is to monitor the client's mental status. Lactulose is given to lower serum ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, and loose stools can be an expected side effect of its use. Monitoring mental status is crucial because changes in mental status, such as confusion or altered level of consciousness, are key indicators of hepatic encephalopathy worsening. Sending a stool specimen to the lab would not be the priority in this situation as loose stools are a known effect of lactulose. Measuring abdominal girth is more relevant for conditions like ascites, not loose stools. Encouraging increased fiber in the diet may be beneficial for constipation but is not the immediate action needed when loose stools occur after lactulose administration.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a hemodialysis session. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum sodium. In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for hemodialysis, monitoring serum sodium levels closely is essential. Hemodialysis can cause rapid shifts in sodium levels, leading to electrolyte imbalances. While serum potassium (choice A) is important to monitor in CKD, it is not the most crucial before hemodialysis. Serum creatinine (choice B) is an indicator of kidney function but is not the most immediate concern before hemodialysis. Serum chloride (choice D) is not typically the primary electrolyte of concern in CKD patients before hemodialysis.

3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial priority in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in reducing myocardial damage. While administering aspirin and nitroglycerin are essential interventions in the treatment of myocardial infarction, oxygen therapy takes precedence because it addresses the immediate need for oxygen supply to the heart muscle. Obtaining an ECG is important but can be done after ensuring adequate oxygenation.

4. A confused, older client with Alzheimer's disease becomes incontinent of urine when attempting to find the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours. This approach, known as scheduled toileting, is essential in managing incontinence in clients with cognitive impairments like Alzheimer's disease. By providing regular assistance to the client to use the commode, the nurse can help maintain continence and reduce accidents. Inserting an indwelling catheter (Choice B) should be avoided if possible to prevent the risk of urinary tract infections. Using adult diapers (Choice C) should be considered a last resort and not the initial intervention. Restricting fluids in the evening (Choice D) is not appropriate as it may lead to dehydration and other complications.

5. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad'. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Stroke secondary to hemorrhage.' Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to the weakening of blood vessels in the brain, increasing the risk of a stroke due to hemorrhage. This can result in serious neurological deficits or even death. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while hypertension can have various complications including vision changes, kidney damage, and heart problems, the most immediate and severe risk associated with uncontrolled hypertension is a stroke from cerebral hemorrhage.

Similar Questions

While caring for a toddler receiving oxygen (02) via face mask, the nurse observes that the child's lips and nares are dry and cracked. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client with myasthenia gravis?
A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed due to early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
The nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client with severe constipation. Which position is most appropriate for the client?
When finding a client sitting on the floor, the nurse calls for help from the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task should the nurse ask the UAP to do?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses