after receiving lactulose a client with hepatic encephalopathy has several loose stools what action should the nurse implement
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HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. After receiving lactulose, a client with hepatic encephalopathy has several loose stools. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement after a client with hepatic encephalopathy has loose stools following lactulose administration is to monitor the client's mental status. Lactulose is given to lower serum ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, and loose stools can be an expected side effect of its use. Monitoring mental status is crucial because changes in mental status, such as confusion or altered level of consciousness, are key indicators of hepatic encephalopathy worsening. Sending a stool specimen to the lab would not be the priority in this situation as loose stools are a known effect of lactulose. Measuring abdominal girth is more relevant for conditions like ascites, not loose stools. Encouraging increased fiber in the diet may be beneficial for constipation but is not the immediate action needed when loose stools occur after lactulose administration.

2. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. In COPD, especially when the client is receiving diuretics or corticosteroids, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. These medications can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Arterial blood gas (choice A) values are important in assessing respiratory status but are not the primary concern related to medication side effects. Serum sodium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are also important, but in the context of COPD exacerbation and medication effects, potassium monitoring takes precedence.

5. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed as seen in the picture. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should first place the side rails in an up position. This action is crucial to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Choice B is incorrect as moving or turning the client is not necessary at this point. Choice C is not a priority when immediate safety concerns are present. Choice D, asking the client if they are comfortable, though important, should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.

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