Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic liver disease is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Enlarged spleen
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Yellowing of the skin
• D. Confusion and altered mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with chronic liver disease, as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Enlarged spleen (choice A) can be a common finding in liver disease due to portal hypertension but may not be as acute as hepatic encephalopathy. Increased abdominal girth (choice B) is typically seen in ascites, which is already present in this client. Yellowing of the skin (choice C) is a manifestation of jaundice, also a known symptom in liver disease but not as acute as confusion and altered mental status.

2. The nurse determines that a client's pupils constrict as they change focus from a far object. What documentation should the nurse enter about this finding?

• A. Pupils reactive to accommodation.
• B. Nystagmus present with pupillary focus.
• C. Peripheral vision intact.
• D. Consensual pupillary constriction present.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils reactive to accommodation.' When pupils constrict as the client changes focus from a far object to a near one, it indicates a normal response known as accommodation. This physiological process allows the eyes to adjust their focus, and it is a healthy finding. Choice B is incorrect because nystagmus is an involuntary eye movement, not related to the change in focus. Choice C is irrelevant to the scenario and does not describe the observed finding. Choice D refers to pupillary constriction in response to light, not accommodation to changes in focus.

3. The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take?

• A. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription
• B. Attempt to clarify the prescriptions with the pharmacist
• C. Administer the medications as prescribed
• D. Ask another healthcare provider for clarification

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to call the healthcare provider who wrote the illegible prescriptions. It is crucial to clarify illegible prescriptions directly with the provider to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Option B, attempting to clarify with the pharmacist, may lead to misinterpretation and is not the recommended first step. Administering the medications as prescribed without clarity can jeopardize patient safety, making option C incorrect. Asking another healthcare provider for clarification (option D) may not be effective as the responsibility lies with the provider who wrote the prescription.

4. The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client teaching?

• A. Avoid strenuous activity for 6 weeks.
• B. Report fresh blood in the urine.
• C. Take acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F.
• D. Consume 6 to 8 glasses of water daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial as it may indicate postoperative complications requiring immediate attention. This symptom can be a sign of bleeding, infection, or other issues that need prompt medical evaluation. Avoiding strenuous activity for 6 weeks is important but not as urgent as reporting fresh blood. Taking acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F is relevant but addressing fresh blood in the urine takes precedence. Consuming an adequate amount of water daily is beneficial but not as critical as recognizing and reporting signs of potential complications.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Headache
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Erythropoietin can increase red blood cell production, leading to thicker blood, which in turn can elevate blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure in this scenario may indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD patients and can be expected with erythropoietin therapy. Headache (choice B) can occur but is less concerning than elevated blood pressure in this context. Low urine output (choice D) is a significant finding in CKD, but in a client receiving erythropoietin, elevated blood pressure takes precedence due to its potential for immediate adverse effects.

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