HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with chronic liver disease is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Enlarged spleen
- B. Increased abdominal girth
- C. Yellowing of the skin
- D. Confusion and altered mental status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with chronic liver disease, as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Enlarged spleen (choice A) can be a common finding in liver disease due to portal hypertension but may not be as acute as hepatic encephalopathy. Increased abdominal girth (choice B) is typically seen in ascites, which is already present in this client. Yellowing of the skin (choice C) is a manifestation of jaundice, also a known symptom in liver disease but not as acute as confusion and altered mental status.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- C. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- D. Serum pH of 7.30
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning finding in a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) as it indicates severe dehydration and hypertonicity. This high serum osmolarity level can lead to neurological complications and requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. Serum glucose levels, blood pressure, and serum pH are important parameters to monitor in HHS, but a significantly elevated serum osmolarity poses a higher risk of complications and warrants urgent attention. High serum glucose levels, like 500 mg/dL, are expected in HHS but do not directly indicate the severity of dehydration. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is within normal limits and may not be directly related to the acute complications of HHS. A serum pH of 7.30 suggests acidosis, which is important to address but may not be as immediately concerning as severe dehydration indicated by high serum osmolarity.
3. A client with urticaria due to environmental allergies is taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Which complaint should the nurse identify as a side effect of this OTC medication?
- A. Nausea and indigestion.
- B. Hypersalivation.
- C. Eyelid and facial twitching.
- D. Increased appetite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and indigestion. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and indigestion. These symptoms are often reported by individuals taking this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypersalivation, eyelid and facial twitching, and increased appetite are not typically associated with diphenhydramine use.
4. During the infusion of a second unit of packed red blood cells, the client's temperature increases from 99 to 101.6 F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Stop the transfusion and start a saline infusion.
- B. Administer antipyretics and continue the transfusion.
- C. Monitor the client’s vital signs every 15 minutes.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider and continue the transfusion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in temperature during a transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction, which can be serious. Stopping the transfusion and starting a saline infusion is the priority action to prevent further complications and address the potential adverse reaction. Administering antipyretics (choice B) may mask the symptoms of a transfusion reaction, delaying appropriate treatment. While monitoring vital signs (choice C) is important, stopping the transfusion takes precedence to prevent harm. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is essential but should not delay the immediate intervention of stopping the transfusion and starting a saline infusion.
5. The mother of an adolescent tells the clinic nurse, 'My son has athlete's foot. I have been applying triple antibiotic ointment for two days, but there has been no improvement.' What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Antibiotics take two weeks to become effective against fungal infections like athlete's foot.
- B. Continue using the ointment for a full week, even after the symptoms disappear.
- C. Applying too much ointment can reduce its effectiveness. Apply a thin layer to prevent maceration.
- D. Stop using the ointment and encourage complete drying of the feet and wearing clean socks.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Athlete's foot (tinea pedis) is a fungal infection, not a bacterial infection that would respond to antibiotics. The primary management involves keeping the feet well-ventilated, dry after bathing, and wearing clean socks to prevent moisture buildup, which promotes fungal growth. Using an antibiotic ointment like triple antibiotic ointment is not effective for treating athlete's foot. Therefore, the nurse should advise the mother to stop using the antibiotic ointment and focus on promoting proper foot hygiene to manage the fungal infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the fungal nature of athlete's foot and the ineffectiveness of antibiotic ointments in its treatment.
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