Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased abdominal girth
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Yellowing of the skin
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with cirrhosis as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased abdominal girth can be seen in ascites, yellowing of the skin is due to jaundice, and peripheral edema is associated with fluid retention in cirrhosis, but confusion and altered mental status are more closely linked to hepatic encephalopathy, which can progress rapidly and needs urgent attention.

2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
• B. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dl
• D. Platelet count of 90,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm3 is low and concerning for a client scheduled for a renal biopsy, as it increases the risk of bleeding. Thrombocytopenia, indicated by a low platelet count, can lead to impaired blood clotting, posing a significant risk of bleeding during or after the biopsy procedure. Elevated serum creatinine levels may be expected in chronic kidney disease but are not directly related to bleeding risk during a renal biopsy. Prothrombin time and hemoglobin levels are not as directly relevant to the bleeding risk associated with a renal biopsy as platelet count.

3. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad'. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Blindness due to cataracts
• B. Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage
• C. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
• D. Heart block due to myocardial damage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Stroke secondary to hemorrhage.' Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to the weakening of blood vessels in the brain, increasing the risk of a stroke due to hemorrhage. This can result in serious neurological deficits or even death. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while hypertension can have various complications including vision changes, kidney damage, and heart problems, the most immediate and severe risk associated with uncontrolled hypertension is a stroke from cerebral hemorrhage.

4. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow
• B. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle
• C. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans
• D. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is applying pressure in the wrong region (umbilical area) and should be instructed to apply pressure at the suprapubic area. Applying downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region helps in emptying the bladder effectively by assisting in pushing the urine out through the urethra. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific issue of applying pressure to help empty the bladder using the Crede Method.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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