Nursing Elites

1. The home health nurse visits a young male client with AIDS who has Kaposi's sarcoma and peripheral neuropathies. His parents, who are the caregivers, tell the nurse that their son sleeps most of the time. The nurse assesses that the client is semi-conscious with stable vital signs, cries out in pain when turned or moved, has a Duragesic pain patch in place, and skin lesions that are closed and dried. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. remove the Duragesic patch as directed by the prescription
• B. give the client a complete bed bath to further assess the client's condition
• C. discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents
• D. call for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with AIDS is showing signs of being in a critical condition - semi-conscious, in pain, and with stable vital signs. The appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement is to discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents. Given the client's symptoms, the presence of a pain patch, and the closed and dried skin lesions, it is essential to address end-of-life care planning. Removing the Duragesic patch without proper authorization can lead to inadequate pain management and should not be done without consulting the healthcare provider. Giving a complete bed bath is not the priority in this situation as it does not address the immediate needs of the client. Calling for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately may not be necessary if the client is stable; instead, the focus should be on providing appropriate support and having critical discussions about the client's care preferences.

2. An elderly client with limited mobility reports feeling isolated and lonely. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Arrange for regular visits from a home health aide
• B. Suggest the client join a local senior center
• C. Refer the client to a support group for seniors
• D. Recommend that the client engage in a new hobby

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to suggest the client join a local senior center. Joining a local senior center provides the elderly client with opportunities for social interaction, engagement in activities, and access to support systems, which can significantly help alleviate feelings of isolation and loneliness. Regular visits from a home health aide (Choice A) may provide physical assistance but may not address the client's need for social connection. Referring the client to a support group for seniors (Choice C) is beneficial, but joining a senior center offers a wider range of activities and social opportunities. Recommending a new hobby (Choice D) may be helpful, but the priority should be addressing the client's immediate need for social interaction and support.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

4. A client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has an elevated blood glucose level. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the TPN infusion.
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Check the TPN infusion rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client receiving TPN with an elevated blood glucose level is to check the TPN infusion rate. Elevated blood glucose levels in clients receiving TPN can be due to incorrect infusion rates leading to increased glucose delivery. By checking the TPN infusion rate, the nurse can verify if the rate is appropriate and make necessary adjustments. Stopping the TPN infusion abruptly could lead to complications from sudden nutrient deprivation. Administering insulin as prescribed may be necessary but should come after ensuring the correct TPN infusion rate. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but addressing the immediate need to check the infusion rate takes priority to manage hyperglycemia effectively.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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