Nursing Elites

1. The home health nurse visits a young male client with AIDS who has Kaposi's sarcoma and peripheral neuropathies. His parents, who are the caregivers, tell the nurse that their son sleeps most of the time. The nurse assesses that the client is semi-conscious with stable vital signs, cries out in pain when turned or moved, has a Duragesic pain patch in place, and skin lesions that are closed and dried. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. remove the Duragesic patch as directed by the prescription
• B. give the client a complete bed bath to further assess the client's condition
• C. discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents
• D. call for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with AIDS is showing signs of being in a critical condition - semi-conscious, in pain, and with stable vital signs. The appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement is to discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents. Given the client's symptoms, the presence of a pain patch, and the closed and dried skin lesions, it is essential to address end-of-life care planning. Removing the Duragesic patch without proper authorization can lead to inadequate pain management and should not be done without consulting the healthcare provider. Giving a complete bed bath is not the priority in this situation as it does not address the immediate needs of the client. Calling for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately may not be necessary if the client is stable; instead, the focus should be on providing appropriate support and having critical discussions about the client's care preferences.

2. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

3. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Expiratory wheezes.
• B. Increased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of breath sounds.
• D. Frequent coughing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absence of breath sounds. This finding is concerning in a client with asthma as it may indicate a severe asthma exacerbation, airway obstruction, or pneumothorax, all of which require immediate intervention. Absence of breath sounds suggests a lack of airflow in the lungs, which is a critical sign that should prompt immediate action. Expiratory wheezes (choice A) are common in asthma and may not warrant immediate intervention unless severe. An increased respiratory rate (choice B) is expected in a client with asthma experiencing shortness of breath, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway. Frequent coughing (choice D) is a common symptom in asthma exacerbations but does not signify an immediate need for intervention as it can be managed with appropriate asthma treatments.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• D. Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week in a client with hyperthyroidism is concerning as it may indicate severe hypermetabolism, leading to potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other metabolic disturbances. Rapid weight loss in hyperthyroidism indicates an accelerated metabolic rate and increased energy expenditure, which can be detrimental to the client's health. The other assessment findings (heart rate of 100 beats per minute, blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute) are commonly seen in clients with hyperthyroidism and may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are significantly outside the normal range or causing distress to the client.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

Similar Questions