Nursing Elites

1. Prior to implementing a community health program targeting teenage smoking, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. greater access to any healthcare provider
• B. allowance for early discharge
• C. Prevalence and patterns of smoking among teenagers
• D. approval by the network healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain before implementing a community health program targeting teenage smoking is the prevalence and patterns of smoking among teenagers. Understanding this data is crucial to tailor the program to the specific needs and behaviors of the target group, ensuring it addresses the root causes effectively. Choices A, B, and D are unrelated to the specific needs of the target group and do not provide essential information for designing an effective smoking cessation program for teenagers.

2. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 60 mg/dL.
• B. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• C. Tremors.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a history of diabetes mellitus admitted with hypoglycemia, the finding that requires immediate intervention is tremors. Tremors can indicate severe hypoglycemia, which needs prompt attention to prevent complications such as seizures or loss of consciousness. While a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL is low, the presence of tremors signifies a more urgent situation. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute and diaphoresis are common physiological responses to hypoglycemia and do not necessarily require immediate intervention unless other severe symptoms are present.

3. The nurse is preparing a presentation on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) for a group of high school students. Which strategy is most effective for this age group?

• A. providing detailed statistical data on STI rates
• B. distributing brochures about STI prevention
• C. showing a documentary on the impact of STIs
• D. facilitating a discussion on safe sex practices

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating a discussion on safe sex practices is the most effective strategy for high school students when educating about sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This approach encourages active participation, allows students to ask questions, share experiences, and engage with the topic in a meaningful way. Providing detailed statistical data may overwhelm the students and not resonate with them effectively. Distributing brochures can be informative but might not promote the same level of interaction and understanding as a discussion. Showing a documentary is a passive method that may not engage the students actively or address their specific questions and concerns.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

5. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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