Nursing Elites

1. Prior to implementing a community health program targeting teenage smoking, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. greater access to any healthcare provider
• B. allowance for early discharge
• C. Prevalence and patterns of smoking among teenagers
• D. approval by the network healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain before implementing a community health program targeting teenage smoking is the prevalence and patterns of smoking among teenagers. Understanding this data is crucial to tailor the program to the specific needs and behaviors of the target group, ensuring it addresses the root causes effectively. Choices A, B, and D are unrelated to the specific needs of the target group and do not provide essential information for designing an effective smoking cessation program for teenagers.

2. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take levothyroxine (Synthroid) at bedtime.
• B. Increase fiber intake to prevent constipation.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take a double dose if a dose is missed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is important because taking levothyroxine on an empty stomach ensures better absorption of the medication. Choice A, taking levothyroxine at bedtime, is incorrect as it does not promote optimal absorption. Choice B, increasing fiber intake to prevent constipation, is important but not the priority when it comes to medication administration. Choice D, taking a double dose if a dose is missed, is dangerous and should never be advised as it can lead to overdose and serious side effects.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg.
• D. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia, which can result in neurological symptoms, such as confusion, seizures, and coma. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choice A, a serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice B, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, is also within the normal range and is not directly related to SIADH. Choice C, serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg, is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the blood and may not be the most critical parameter to address in a client with SIADH and severe hyponatremia.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A thrill is palpable on the fistula.
• B. The client's arm is warm and red.
• C. The fistula has a bruit on auscultation.
• D. There is no bruit on auscultation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

5. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.

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