Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is inspecting the external eye structures of a client. Which finding is a normal racial variation?

• A. Blue sclerae.
• B. Brown macules on the sclerae.
• C. Slightly yellow sclerae in an African-American client.
• D. Conjunctival pallor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The slightly yellow color of the sclera is a normal racial variation found in the African-American population. Blue sclerae (Choice A) are associated with osteogenesis imperfecta, not a normal racial variation. Brown macules on the sclerae (Choice B) may indicate issues like melanoma or melanosis but are not a normal racial variation. Conjunctival pallor (Choice D) suggests anemia or decreased blood flow but is not a normal racial variation.

2. The school nurse is coaching a group of high school students on ways to deal with the stress of final exams. Today the class is focusing on healthy food choices for lunch in the school cafeteria. Which option should the nurse recommend?

• A. cheeseburger on a whole wheat bun, French fries, and a large cola beverage
• B. tuna casserole with peas and corn, a fresh apple, crackers, and orange juice
• C. fruit salad with fresh berries and oranges, chicken vegetable soup, and tea
• D. chef salad with turkey, ham, and ranch dressing, apple juice, and milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The recommended option for managing stress during final exams is a balanced and nutritious meal. Fruit salad with fresh berries and oranges, chicken vegetable soup, and tea offer a variety of nutrients and antioxidants that can help combat stress. Option A is not ideal as it includes high-fat and high-calorie foods. Option B is a good choice, but Option C provides a wider range of nutrients and hydration. Option D is a healthy choice with a variety of proteins and vitamins, but Option C offers lighter options that may be easier to digest during stressful times.

3. A client with hypertension is being seen in a community clinic. The nurse notes that the client has not been taking their prescribed medication regularly. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

• A. Educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
• B. Explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client
• C. Refer the client to a hypertension specialist
• D. Adjust the client's medication regimen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial intervention when a client is not adhering to prescribed medication is to explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client. Understanding the client's perspective can help identify barriers to adherence, such as side effects, cost, forgetfulness, or misunderstanding of the treatment. By addressing these reasons, the nurse can work collaboratively with the client to develop strategies to improve medication compliance. Educating the client on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after exploring the reasons for non-adherence. Referring the client to a hypertension specialist (Choice C) or adjusting the medication regimen (Choice D) should be considered after addressing the underlying reasons for non-adherence.

4. The nurse obtains a pulse rate of 89 beats/min for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication.
• B. Hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider.
• C. Double the dose.
• D. Increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider. Bradycardia (pulse rate less than 100 beats/minute) is an early sign of digoxin toxicity. It is essential to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider to prevent potential adverse effects. Administering the medication (Choice A) could exacerbate the toxicity. Doubling the dose (Choice C) is inappropriate and dangerous. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of digoxin toxicity.

5. After coronary artery bypass graft surgery, a male client is admitted to the coronary care unit. Which nursing diagnosis is of the highest priority?

• A. Ineffective breathing pattern.
• B. Impaired gas exchange.
• C. Acute pain.
• D. Risk for infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Impaired gas exchange is the highest priority nursing diagnosis because it directly impacts the client's oxygenation. Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery, ensuring adequate oxygen exchange is crucial for the client's recovery. Ineffective breathing pattern, although important, may not be as critical as impaired gas exchange in the immediate postoperative period. Acute pain, while significant, can be managed effectively with appropriate interventions and is not as emergent as addressing impaired gas exchange. Risk for infection is also a valid concern post-surgery, but ensuring optimal gas exchange takes precedence to prevent complications associated with inadequate oxygenation.

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