HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before a renal biopsy, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), monitoring creatinine levels is crucial as elevated levels may indicate worsening kidney function, which could impact the safety and outcome of the biopsy. Hemoglobin (choice C) is important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not directly related to the kidney biopsy procedure. Serum potassium (choice A) is important to monitor in CKD but is not specifically crucial before a renal biopsy. White blood cell count (choice D) is more relevant for assessing infection or inflammation, which is not the primary concern before a renal biopsy.
2. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?
- A. Serum calcium of 8.5 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum chloride of 102 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L should be monitored closely in a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy to detect any electrolyte imbalances. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of hypokalemia due to the effects of anesthesia, stress response, and the surgical procedure itself. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Serum calcium, sodium, and chloride levels are important but not the primary focus following a thyroidectomy, making them incorrect choices.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with a history of COPD, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, necessitating immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it suggests the client is struggling to breathe adequately. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but may be expected in COPD patients; it requires monitoring and intervention but is not as immediately concerning as the use of accessory muscles. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is within a normal range and, although slightly elevated, may be a typical response to pneumonia. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) can be a common finding in pneumonia and are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the use of accessory muscles.
4. An older male client with a history of diabetes mellitus, chronic gout, and osteoarthritis comes to the clinic with a bag of medication bottles. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Identify pills in the bag
- B. Review the client's medication schedule
- C. Assess the client's symptoms
- D. Educate the client about proper medication usage
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to identify pills in the bag first. This is essential to ensure the client is taking the correct medications and to prevent any potential medication errors. Reviewing the client's medication schedule (choice B) can come after identifying the pills to cross-reference the medications. Assessing the client's symptoms (choice C) is important but should follow identifying the medications. Educating the client about proper medication usage (choice D) is crucial but should be done after confirming the medications in the bag.
5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?
- A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L should be closely monitored in a client with chronic heart failure as it may indicate hyperkalemia, requiring intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart failure. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is important to monitor for kidney function but is not the priority in this case. Serum sodium (Choice B) and blood glucose (Choice D) levels are not typically the primary focus when assessing a client with heart failure presenting with respiratory symptoms and crackles in the lungs.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access