Nursing Elites

1. A female client with type 2 diabetes reports that she has been taking her medications as prescribed but her blood glucose levels remain elevated. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's current blood glucose level.
• B. Assess the client's diet and medication adherence.
• C. Review the client's medication list for potential interactions.
• D. Obtain a hemoglobin A1c level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to review the client's medication list for potential interactions. This step is crucial as it can help identify any medications that might be contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. Checking the current blood glucose level (choice A) is important but not the first action to address the ongoing issue. Assessing the client's diet and medication adherence (choice B) is also important, but reviewing the medication list should be the initial step to rule out any drug-related causes. Obtaining a hemoglobin A1c level (choice D) is a valuable assessment but may not address the immediate need to identify potential medication interactions.

2. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered twins and is at risk for postpartum hemorrhage?

• A. Maintain cold packs on the perineum for 24 hours.
• B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
• C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infants.
• D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the early detection and prevention of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal tone helps identify uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, while monitoring lochia flow can indicate excessive bleeding. Cold packs on the perineum, although helpful for pain and swelling, are not the priority in this situation. Pain assessment and observing interactions with infants are important but secondary to assessing for signs of postpartum hemorrhage.

3. To reduce staff nurse role ambiguity, which strategy should the nurse-manager implement?

• A. Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current.
• B. Conduct regular meetings to clarify roles.
• C. Increase communication between team members.
• D. Provide additional training for new nurses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current. By ensuring that job descriptions are clear and up-to-date, nurse-managers can reduce ambiguity and confusion about roles and responsibilities. Choice B, conducting regular meetings to clarify roles, may help but may not address the root cause of ambiguity. Choice C, increasing communication between team members, is important but may not specifically target role ambiguity. Choice D, providing additional training for new nurses, is valuable but may not directly address role ambiguity among existing staff.

4. A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Complete blood count
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Prothrombin time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serum creatinine should be closely monitored in a client receiving methotrexate, as the medication can cause nephrotoxicity. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps assess kidney function and detect potential nephrotoxic effects of methotrexate. Liver function tests (Choice A) are important to monitor for hepatotoxicity caused by methotrexate. While methotrexate can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia, monitoring a complete blood count (Choice B) is essential but not the priority in this case. Prothrombin time (Choice D) is not typically affected by methotrexate therapy and is not the primary laboratory value to monitor in this situation.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
• B. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
• C. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L
• D. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.

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