Nursing Elites

1. A female client with type 2 diabetes reports that she has been taking her medications as prescribed but her blood glucose levels remain elevated. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's current blood glucose level.
• B. Assess the client's diet and medication adherence.
• C. Review the client's medication list for potential interactions.
• D. Obtain a hemoglobin A1c level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to review the client's medication list for potential interactions. This step is crucial as it can help identify any medications that might be contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. Checking the current blood glucose level (choice A) is important but not the first action to address the ongoing issue. Assessing the client's diet and medication adherence (choice B) is also important, but reviewing the medication list should be the initial step to rule out any drug-related causes. Obtaining a hemoglobin A1c level (choice D) is a valuable assessment but may not address the immediate need to identify potential medication interactions.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl
• C. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Positive urine ketones

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. A low serum potassium level in a client with DKA is concerning due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. Kussmaul respirations (choice A) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in DKA. A blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl (choice B) is elevated but expected in DKA. Positive urine ketones (choice D) are a classic finding in DKA and not as concerning as low serum potassium.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dL
• B. Serum bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dL
• C. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL
• D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. High serum ammonia levels can lead to altered mental status, confusion, and even coma. Serum albumin (choice A) is often decreased in cirrhosis but does not require immediate intervention. Serum bilirubin (choice B) elevation is expected in cirrhosis and may not require immediate intervention unless very high. Serum sodium (choice D) within the given range is generally acceptable and does not require immediate intervention.

4. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
• B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
• C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
• D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Presence of a new murmur

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid overload, a common issue in heart failure patients. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and potential complications. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg are within normal ranges for many individuals and do not typically require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may be important to monitor but is not the priority when crackles in the lungs suggest fluid overload.

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