Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with pneumonia and is started on antibiotics. After 3 days, the client reports difficulty breathing and a rash. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Discontinue the antibiotic
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation
• D. Call the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's difficulty breathing and rash suggest a possible allergic reaction to the antibiotic. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue the antibiotic to prevent further exposure. Administering epinephrine should only be done in severe cases of anaphylaxis, which is not indicated solely by difficulty breathing and rash. While assessing the client's oxygen saturation is important, discontinuing the potential allergen takes precedence. Contacting the healthcare provider should be done after discontinuing the antibiotic and assessing the client to report the situation and seek further guidance.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with an acute myocardial infarction. Which symptom requires immediate intervention?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Severe chest pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe chest pain is the hallmark symptom of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Chest pain in this context is often described as crushing, pressure, tightness, or heaviness. It can radiate to the arms, neck, jaw, back, or upper abdomen. Other symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting may also occur in acute myocardial infarction, but chest pain is the most critical sign requiring prompt action as it signifies inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. Shortness of breath may indicate heart failure, while nausea and vomiting can be associated with the sympathetic response to myocardial infarction. Dizziness could result from decreased cardiac output but is not as specific to myocardial infarction as severe chest pain.

3. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

4. A child newly diagnosed with sickle cell anemia (SCA) is being discharged from the hospital. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the parents prior to discharge?

• A. Nutritional guidelines to support blood health
• B. Signs of infection to monitor for
• C. When to give pain medication
• D. Instructions about how much fluid the child should drink daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proper hydration is crucial in managing sickle cell anemia (SCA) as it helps prevent sickling of red blood cells and reduces blood viscosity, which can lead to painful crises. Ensuring the child drinks enough fluids is essential to maintain adequate hydration levels and reduce the risk of complications. While nutritional guidelines and recognizing signs of infection are important aspects of care, maintaining proper hydration is the most immediate and critical factor in managing SCA and preventing crises.

5. An adolescent client with intellectual disability refuses oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks.
• B. Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task.
• C. Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks.
• D. Preferred activities or privileges for compliance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best reinforcement for the nurse to implement is preferred activities or privileges for compliance. Positive reinforcement with privileges is effective in encouraging behavior change in adolescents, including those with intellectual disabilities. Choice A (Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks) may not be suitable as it involves providing a sugary reward, which contradicts the goal of oral hygiene. Choice B (Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task) could be effective but may not be as motivating as preferred activities or privileges. Choice C (Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks) focuses on negative reinforcement, which is not as effective as positive reinforcement in behavior modification.

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