HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client is admitted with pneumonia and is started on antibiotics. After 3 days, the client reports difficulty breathing and a rash. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Discontinue the antibiotic
- C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation
- D. Call the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's difficulty breathing and rash suggest a possible allergic reaction to the antibiotic. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue the antibiotic to prevent further exposure. Administering epinephrine should only be done in severe cases of anaphylaxis, which is not indicated solely by difficulty breathing and rash. While assessing the client's oxygen saturation is important, discontinuing the potential allergen takes precedence. Contacting the healthcare provider should be done after discontinuing the antibiotic and assessing the client to report the situation and seek further guidance.
2. A nurse finds a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation in cardiac arrest. What modification to cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer chest compressions at a faster rate.
- B. Position a firm wedge under the client’s pelvis and thorax at a 30-degree tilt.
- C. Position the client flat with legs elevated.
- D. Call for immediate assistance and prepare for a cesarean section.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation, performing CPR requires tilting the pelvis and thorax at a 30-degree angle to relieve pressure on the vena cava, ensuring proper circulation during compressions. Administering chest compressions at a faster rate (Choice A) may not address the specific needs of a pregnant client in cardiac arrest. Positioning the client flat with legs elevated (Choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen vena cava compression. Calling for immediate assistance and preparing for a cesarean section (Choice D) should be considered only after initiating appropriate CPR modifications.
3. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?
- A. White blood cell count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
- C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.
4. A client with Alzheimer’s disease is becoming increasingly confused. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Reorient the client to time and place.
- B. Monitor the client’s vital signs.
- C. Provide the client with calming activities to reduce confusion.
- D. Consult with the healthcare provider about adjusting the client’s medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with Alzheimer’s disease is becoming increasingly confused is to monitor the client’s vital signs (Choice B). Increased confusion in Alzheimer’s disease patients may indicate underlying issues like infection, dehydration, or medication side effects. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in identifying any potential causes of the confusion. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. Reorienting the client to time and place (Choice A) can be helpful but is not the first priority. Providing calming activities (Choice C) and consulting with the healthcare provider about medication adjustments (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after assessing the client's vital signs to rule out immediate physical causes of confusion.
5. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.
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