Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with pneumonia and is started on antibiotics. After 3 days, the client reports difficulty breathing and a rash. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Discontinue the antibiotic
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation
• D. Call the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's difficulty breathing and rash suggest a possible allergic reaction to the antibiotic. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue the antibiotic to prevent further exposure. Administering epinephrine should only be done in severe cases of anaphylaxis, which is not indicated solely by difficulty breathing and rash. While assessing the client's oxygen saturation is important, discontinuing the potential allergen takes precedence. Contacting the healthcare provider should be done after discontinuing the antibiotic and assessing the client to report the situation and seek further guidance.

2. A client is scheduled for a spiral CT scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client's history requires follow-up by the nurse?

• A. Is allergic to shellfish
• B. Has a history of smoking
• C. Takes metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus
• D. Has hypertension controlled with medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An allergy to shellfish often indicates an allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dyes for CT scans. This poses a significant risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure. The nurse must ensure appropriate precautions or alternative imaging are considered. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated for a CT scan with contrast. Smoking history, metformin use, and controlled hypertension do not typically impact the safety or feasibility of the procedure.

3. The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to lead poisoning?

• A. An 8-year-old who lives in a housing project.
• B. A 2-year-old who plays on aging playground equipment.
• C. An adolescent who works in a paint factory.
• D. A 10-year-old with Type 1 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Young children, like the 2-year-old playing on aging playground equipment, are at higher risk of lead poisoning due to their hand-to-mouth behavior and exploration of their environment. Aging playground equipment may have lead-based paint that can be ingested by the child. While children living in housing projects are also at risk due to lead-based paint in older buildings, the 2-year-old child playing on potentially lead-contaminated playground equipment is the most susceptible in this scenario. The adolescent working in a paint factory may face occupational hazards related to lead exposure, but the immediate risk from environmental sources is higher for the 2-year-old. Type 1 diabetes in a 10-year-old is not directly linked to an increased susceptibility to lead poisoning.

4. A female client taking prednisone reports feeling tired after stopping the corticosteroid abruptly. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Auscultate breath sounds.
• B. Measure vital signs.
• C. Palpate the abdomen.
• D. Observe the skin for bruising.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate the abdomen. When a client abruptly stops taking prednisone, there is a risk of adrenal insufficiency, which can present with symptoms like fatigue. Palpating the abdomen is crucial to assess for signs of adrenal crisis, such as abdominal pain, which can indicate severe adrenal insufficiency. Auscultating breath sounds (Choice A) and observing the skin for bruising (Choice D) are not the priority interventions in this situation. While measuring vital signs (Choice B) is important, palpating the abdomen takes precedence in this case to assess for potential adrenal insufficiency.

5. A client with hypoglycemia is unresponsive. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer intravenous dextrose.
• B. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• C. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• D. Prepare to administer oral glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer glucagon intramuscularly. In an unresponsive hypoglycemic client, administering glucagon intramuscularly is the priority action as it helps raise blood glucose levels quickly. Intravenous dextrose may be challenging to administer in an unresponsive client. Checking the client's blood glucose level is important but not the priority when the client is unresponsive. Preparing to administer oral glucose is not ideal for an unresponsive client as they may not be able to swallow.

Similar Questions