Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

2. Cycloserine (Seromycin) is added to the medication regimen for a client with tuberculosis. Which of the following would the nurse include in the client-teaching plan regarding this medication?

• A. To take the medication after meals
• B. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing
• C. To call the health care provider (HCP) if a skin rash occurs
• D. To restrict alcohol intake with this medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cycloserine requires weekly serum drug level determinations to monitor for neurotoxicity. The medication must be taken after meals, and the client should avoid alcohol. Additionally, the client should report any signs of skin rash or central nervous system toxicity to the healthcare provider.

3. A client is receiving sulfisoxazole. Which of the following should be included in the list of instructions?

• A. Restrict fluid intake.
• B. Maintain a high fluid intake.
• C. If the urine turns dark brown, call the healthcare provider (HCP) immediately.
• D. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is taking sulfisoxazole, it is important to maintain a high fluid intake. Each dose of sulfisoxazole should be taken with a full glass of water, as the medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. Restricting fluid intake is not recommended as it can lead to inadequate hydration. Dark brown urine may be a side effect of some forms of sulfisoxazole but does not necessarily warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. Decreasing the dosage when symptoms improve is not advised as it may lead to treatment failure or the development of resistance.

4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Fever
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.

5. While taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), a client should be instructed to report which symptom if it develops during the course of this medication therapy?

• A. Nausea
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Headache
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) should be educated about potential blood disorders associated with the medication. Early signs of these disorders include symptoms like sore throat, fever, and pallor. If the client experiences any of these symptoms, they should promptly notify their healthcare provider. Nausea, diarrhea, and headache are common side effects of TMP-SMZ that usually do not require immediate medical attention.

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