Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

2. A client who has been taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis asks the nurse about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should limit my alcohol intake.
• B. I should notify my doctor if I notice a yellowish skin color.
• C. I should take the medication with an empty stomach.
• D. I should notify my doctor if I experience numbness and tingling in my extremities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Isoniazid (INH) is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach. However, if gastrointestinal upset occurs, it can be taken with food. Limiting alcohol intake, monitoring for jaundice, and notifying the doctor of peripheral neuropathy symptoms are all appropriate actions while taking INH.

3. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Heartburn
• C. Flatulence
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.

4. During an admission assessment, a client informs the nurse that they take propylthiouracil (PTU) daily. Based on this information, the nurse suspects that the client has a history of:

• A. Myxedema
• B. Graves' disease
• C. Addison's disease
• D. Cushing's syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism, including Graves' disease, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. The client mentioning the daily use of PTU indicates that they likely have a history of Graves' disease, as this medication helps manage the condition by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Graves' disease. Choice A, Myxedema, is incorrect as it refers to a condition of severe hypothyroidism, the opposite of hyperthyroidism. Choices C and D, Addison's disease and Cushing's syndrome, respectively, are unrelated to the use of PTU or hyperthyroidism, making them incorrect choices.

5. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

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