a client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine catapres transdermal patch which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medicati
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HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI Quizlet

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine (Catapres) transdermal patch. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client should remove the old clonidine (Catapres) patch before applying a new one to prevent overdose. The patch is typically changed every 7 days. Avoiding alcohol consumption is important as it can potentiate the sedative effects of clonidine. It is recommended to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal drug absorption.

2. A child is hospitalized with a diagnosis of lead poisoning. The healthcare provider assisting in caring for the child would prepare to assist in administering which of the following medications?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dimercaprol (BAL in Oil) is a chelating agent indicated for lead poisoning. It works by binding to lead and facilitating its removal from the body. Activated charcoal is used for certain types of poisoning by adsorbing toxins, while sodium bicarbonate can be used to treat acidosis. Syrup of ipecac is no longer recommended for poison treatment due to potential risks.

3. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, working to reverse its effects in case of excessive bleeding. It should be readily available when administering heparin to manage any potential bleeding complications effectively. Potassium chloride is not the antidote for heparin and is typically used to correct low potassium levels. Phytonadione (vitamin K) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is used to treat or prevent excessive bleeding but is not the antidote for heparin.

4. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.

5. Insulin glargine (Lantus) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse tells the client that it is best to take the insulin:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin with a duration of action of approximately 24 hours, making it suitable for once-daily dosing at the same time each day. This regimen helps maintain consistent blood glucose levels and simplifies the client's treatment routine. Taking insulin glargine once daily provides basal insulin coverage throughout the day, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia compared to short-acting insulins that are taken before each meal.

Similar Questions

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The healthcare provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatment?

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