Nursing Elites

1. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg orally, to a client with heart failure. Which vital sign is most important for the healthcare professional to check before administering the medication?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Temperature
• C. Respirations
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering digoxin, it is essential to assess the client's heart rate as this medication directly affects cardiac function. Monitoring the heart rate helps identify if it is within the acceptable range for administering digoxin. A pulse rate below 60 beats per minute warrants withholding the medication to prevent potential adverse effects like bradycardia or cardiac arrhythmias.

3. The client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide (Neosar). The nurse is reinforcing medication instructions and advises the client to:

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily.
• C. Decrease sodium intake while taking the medication.
• D. Increase potassium intake while taking the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily. Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a toxic effect. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help prevent this complication by promoting frequent urination, which reduces the concentration of the drug and its metabolites in the bladder. This dilution effect can help reduce the risk of bladder toxicity.

4. A client is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) transdermal patch for angina. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Apply the patch to a hairless area of skin.
• B. Leave the patch on for 24 hours.
• C. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
• D. You can keep the patch on while taking a shower.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan is to apply the nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) transdermal patch at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication. While it is important to apply the patch to a hairless area of the skin for proper absorption, it does not necessarily have to be left on for 24 hours; typically, it is worn for 12-14 hours to allow for a nitrate-free period and reduce tolerance. Additionally, the patch can generally be kept on while taking a shower, as water exposure does not typically affect its efficacy.

5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Fever
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.

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