Nursing Elites

1. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

2. A client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I should brush and floss my teeth regularly.
• B. I should take the medication with antacids.
• C. I can stop taking the medication once my seizures are controlled.
• D. I should avoid drinking milk while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is 'I should brush and floss my teeth regularly.' Phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, so maintaining good oral hygiene is essential. Taking the medication with antacids can affect its absorption, so it should not be done. It is crucial not to stop taking the medication abruptly, even if seizures are controlled. There is no specific requirement to avoid milk while taking phenytoin (Dilantin).

3. While assisting in caring for a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management, a nurse notes the client's absent deep tendon reflexes. What determination should the nurse make based on this data?

• A. The magnesium sulfate is effective.
• B. The infusion rate needs to be increased.
• C. The client is experiencing cerebral edema.
• D. The client is experiencing magnesium toxicity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management exhibits absent deep tendon reflexes, this indicates magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can occur as a complication of magnesium sulfate therapy, leading to suppressed reflexes. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this sign promptly and report it to prevent further complications or harm to the client.

4. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) is prescribed for a client with neurogenic bladder. Which sign would indicate a possible toxic effect related to this medication?

• A. Pallor
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of toxicity related to oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) include central nervous system excitation, such as nervousness, restlessness, hallucinations, and irritability. Other signs of toxicity may include hypotension or hypertension, confusion, tachycardia, a flushed or red face, and signs of respiratory depression. Restlessness is a sign of central nervous system excitation, which can indicate a possible toxic effect of this medication.

5. A home health care nurse is visiting a client with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL. The client is taking cholestyramine (Questran). Which of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates the need for further education?

• A. Constipation and bloating might be a problem.
• B. I'll continue to watch my diet and reduce my fats.
• C. Walking a mile each day will help the whole process.
• D. I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nicotinic acid, even an over-the-counter form, should be avoided because it may lead to liver abnormalities. All lipid-lowering medications also can cause liver abnormalities, so a combination of nicotinic acid and cholestyramine resin is to be avoided. Constipation and bloating are the two most common side effects. Walking and the reduction of fats in the diet are therapeutic measures to reduce cholesterol and triglyceride levels.

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