a client is being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide the vital signs are as follows blood pressure
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI

1. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

2. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.

3. A client is learning how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which action, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When mixing regular insulin with another insulin preparation, it is crucial to withdraw the regular insulin first to prevent contamination. NPH insulin should be drawn after the regular insulin to maintain the integrity of each insulin type. Therefore, if the client withdraws the NPH insulin first, it indicates the need for further teaching. Choice B is correct as withdrawing regular insulin first is the appropriate step. Choice C is incorrect as air should be injected into the vial containing the regular insulin to maintain pressure. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial is a correct step in preparing the insulin for withdrawal.

4. A client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is 'I should brush and floss my teeth regularly.' Phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, so maintaining good oral hygiene is essential. Taking the medication with antacids can affect its absorption, so it should not be done. It is crucial not to stop taking the medication abruptly, even if seizures are controlled. There is no specific requirement to avoid milk while taking phenytoin (Dilantin).

5. Megestrol acetate (Megace), an antineoplastic medication, is prescribed for a client with metastatic endometrial carcinoma. The nurse reviews the client's history and contacts the registered nurse if which diagnosis is documented in the client's history?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Megestrol acetate can increase the risk of thromboembolic events. Clients with a history of thrombophlebitis should not receive this medication due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events. Therefore, the nurse should contact the registered nurse if thrombophlebitis is documented in the client's history to ensure appropriate medication management.

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