Nursing Elites

1. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
• B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
• C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
• D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.

2. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Limit sodium intake
• D. Take the medication at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.

3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the nasal cannula
• B. Lower the oxygen rate
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
• D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with COPD receiving increased oxygen is experiencing oxygen toxicity, leading to lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate is the priority action to prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and monitoring oxygen saturation are all important interventions, but the immediate concern is to address the oxygen toxicity by lowering the oxygen rate.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-op following abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Administer pain medication
• D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This action helps prevent infection and keeps the wound moist, which is crucial in promoting healing. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after providing immediate wound care. Option C, administering pain medication, is not the priority when there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. Option D, covering the wound with an abdominal binder, is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the protruding bowel and potential risk for infection.

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