HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
- B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
- C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
- D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.
2. Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?
- A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
- B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
- C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
- D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods. Oxygen toxicity can occur when high levels of oxygen are given for a prolonged period. It is important to monitor and adjust the oxygen levels as needed to prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because administering a sedative to slow the respiratory rate does not directly prevent oxygen toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as removing the nasal cannula during the night can compromise the client's oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect as running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity; instead, it may introduce risks associated with the hydration source.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). While INR is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, in the case of heparin therapy, the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the preferred test. Choice A, Prothrombin Time (PT), measures the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the best choice for monitoring heparin therapy. Choice D, Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), is similar to PTT and is used to monitor heparin therapy, but PTT is the more specific test. Therefore, monitoring PTT is crucial in determining the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy.
4. A primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min. The nurse monitors the client for one hour, using an external fetal monitor, and determines that the client’s contractions are 7 to 15 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds, with mild intensity by palpation. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client to go directly to the hospital for admission to labor and delivery for active labor
- B. Send the client home and instruct her to call the clinic when her contractions occur 5 minutes apart for one hour
- C. Tell the client to check into the hospital within the next hour for evaluation of possible urinary tract infection
- D. Advise the client to rest and hydrate, then return if contractions become more regular
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client should be instructed to call when contractions are 5 minutes apart for an hour to ensure she is in active labor before going to the hospital.
5. The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
- B. Teaching the client how to push effectively to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
- C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
- D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to ensure safety by raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach. This is crucial to prevent falls and to ensure that the client can call for assistance if needed. Teaching the client how to push effectively (Choice B) is important but not the highest priority at this moment. Timing and recording uterine contractions (Choice C) are essential but not as immediate as ensuring safety post-anesthesia. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia (Choice D) is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence in this situation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access