HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with fluid volume overload. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- B. Presence of a cough
- C. Edema in the lower extremities
- D. Shortness of breath
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D - Shortness of breath.' In a client with congestive heart failure experiencing fluid volume overload, shortness of breath is a critical finding that indicates possible pulmonary congestion and worsening heart failure. This symptom requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common findings in clients with CHF but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Weight gain may indicate fluid retention, cough can be due to pulmonary congestion, and edema in lower extremities is a common manifestation of CHF, but none of these findings are as concerning as shortness of breath in this scenario.
2. A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?
- A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
- B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
- C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
- D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale of 3 indicates severe neurological impairment, suggesting a deep coma or even impending death. This client's condition is critical, and he has a very poor prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because a GCS of 3 does not directly indicate increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as a GCS of 3 signifies a grave neurological status. Choice C is incorrect as a GCS of 3 represents a state of unconsciousness rather than being conscious but disoriented.
3. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client has a productive cough with pink, frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Perform chest physiotherapy
- C. Elevate the head of the bed
- D. Obtain a sputum specimen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with heart failure presenting with worsening dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum (indicating pulmonary edema), the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea by increasing the oxygen supply to the lungs. Performing chest physiotherapy, elevating the head of the bed, or obtaining a sputum specimen are not the initial actions indicated in this situation and may delay addressing the client's immediate need for improved oxygenation.
4. A client with a C-6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider and implement which intervention?
- A. Place the client in reverse Trendelenburg position
- B. Prepare for intubation with an endotracheal tube
- C. Administer a pain medication to the client
- D. Instruct the client on deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a C-6 spinal injury exhibiting shallow respirations and dyspnea, these signs could indicate respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. Intubation with an endotracheal tube may be necessary to secure the airway and support adequate oxygenation. Placing the client in reverse Trendelenburg position, administering pain medication, or instructing on deep breathing exercises would not directly address the urgency of the respiratory distress in this situation, making them incorrect choices.
5. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the child in a mist tent
- B. Obtain a sputum culture
- C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
- D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.
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